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2025年CFA特许金融分析师《CFA二级》模拟试卷一

CFA二级 / 模拟试卷 共 88 题 更新于 2026-09-28

一、综合分析题

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Brian Patrick, CFA, has recently joined Northside Capital Advisers (Northside) as the firm’s assistant compliance officer. Northside manages individual accounts with conservative mandates for a variety of retirements funds, as well as individual accounts for high-net-worth investors with long investment horizons. Kyle Sang, CFA, is Northside’s chief compliance officer and Patrick’s supervisor. Sang has been with the firm since its inception and wrote the firm’s original Code of Ethics and Compliance Manual. Sang provides Patrick with a copy of both documents and asks Patrick to review them. He instructs Patrick to highlight any areas he feels should be revised or enhanced. Patrick lists the items that need to be addressed. The first item on his list is the lack of whistle-blowing guidance for an employee who could potentially find herself in a position of needing to report the firm’s activities.The second item Patrick adds to his list concerns the responsibilities of supervisors. Although the information contained in the Compliance Manual is accurate, he believes it needs to be augmented so the firm’s supervisors have a clear understanding of their responsibilities. He advises adding the following items to the firm’s Compliance Manual, recommending Supervisors should do the following:Recommendation 1: Conduct an initial review of the firm’s Policies and Procedures, and review as necessary to ensure they are consistent with applicable laws and regulations.Recommendation 2: Incorporate a professional conduct evaluation as part of the employee’s performance review.Recommendation 3: Review the actions of all the firm’s employees, and identify violators.Patrick believes he needs a better understanding of the investment process before he makes any investment-policy-related recommendations. He meets with Staci Canton, the firm’s chief investment officer. Following his meeting with Canton, Patrick suggests the following enhancements to the firm’s Compliance Manual related to investment research:Proposal 1: Develop criteria for assessing analysts’ research quality and contribution, including the accuracy and timing of their recommendations.Proposal 2: Appoint a supervisor to review and approve communication material.Proposal 3: Develop detailed, written guidance that establishes the due diligence procedures.Patrick asks Canton to provide him with a copy of a recent research report that would have been distributed to the firm’s clients. Patrick is provided a copy of the PT Matias (PT) report, written by Amanda Burt, CFA. PT is involved in the manufacture of aluminum cans supplied to the soft drink industry. She mentions that PT has recently gone through a reorganization and is in a turnaround situation, so the potential returns are quite large. The shares were recently purchased for all client portfolios in a block trade. After reviewing the report, Patrick meets with Burt to discuss her approach to researching companies, meeting with company management, and determining earnings estimates. Burt explains to Patrick how carefully she documents her meetings with management and shares her notes with him. He compares the meeting notes with Burt’s recent report and notices she has included management’s guidance for earnings and margins along with her own estimates.While talking with Burt, Patrick asks if she ever plays a role when the marketing department makes new business presentations. She tells him that because of her stock selection track record, she is frequently involved in those types of meetings. She adds that she typically reviews the methodology used to research a company and determine a recommendation. They discuss the potential clients, and she jokes that she even made a presentation to an investment committee for the retirement assets of a company under her coverage. The firm’s business development manager was unhappy that she had a sell rating on the potential client’s stock when the sales pitch took place.Patrick’s review of the firm’s Code and Compliance Policies and Procedures is almost complete. The final item to review is how the firm handles employees’ trading. He notices the current Policies and Procedures are lacking. He notes that the firm currently restricts employee participation in IPOs, has a very narrow blackout period for employees trading securities on their buy list, and ensures personal trading policies are kept confidential. Sang tells Patrick of the difficulty he experienced in trying to get more robust personal trading policies and procedures approved. The board has historically been reluctant to put restrictions in place that limit the staff’s ability to invest their personal funds.
1.
Under CFA Institute Standard IV: Duties to Employers, with regard to the subject matter of the first item on Patrick’s list, whose interest is least likely of importance?
  • A.Northside’s
  • B.The capital markets’
  • C.Northside’s clients’

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Northside’s interest would be of least importance relative to capital markets and Northside’s clients and should be reflected in any whistle-blowing policy. Under CFA Institute Standard IV(A): Loyalty, an employee’s personal interest and an employer’s interest are secondary to protecting the integrity of capital markets and the interests of clients. If Northside becomes involved in illegal or unethical activities, an employee would need to act against Northside’s interest to comply with his obligations to uphold Standard II: Integrity of Capital Markets and Standard III: Duties to Clients.
B and C are incorrect because employees have an obligation under Standard IV: Duties to Employers to protect the integrity of the capital markets and the firm’s clients before either Northside’s interest or employees’ personal interest.
2.
Which of Patrick’s recommendations is most likely insufficient to comply with Standard IV(C): Responsibilities of Supervisors?
  • A.Recommendation 1
  • B.Recommendation 2
  • C.Recommendation 3

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Recommendation 1 is insufficient to comply with Standard IV(C): Responsibilities of Supervisors, because it does not meet the requirement to perform periodic reviews. Under Standard IV(C), once a compliance program is in place, supervisors should perform periodic updates of their procedures to ensure the measures are adequate under the law. They should also review and revise their procedures as necessary as new laws and regulations are put in place to ensure the measures are adequate.
B and C are incorrect because those recommendations are sufficient under Standard IV(C): Responsibilities of Supervisors and could be incorporated into Northside’s Policies and Procedures as recommended.
3.
To indicate the area of the investment research process he wants to address, Patrick should most likely label the proposals as follows:
  • A.Proposal 1 = Compensation, Proposal 2 = Reasonable Basis, Proposal 3 = Distribution
  • B.Proposal 1 = Reasonable Basis, Proposal 2 = Distribution, Proposal 3 = Compensation
  • C.Proposal 1 = Compensation, Proposal 2 = Distribution, Proposal 3 = Reasonable Basis

参考答案C

解析C is correct. Standard V(A): Diligence and Reasonable Basis recommends Patrick should most likely label the proposals as follows:
Proposal 1 = Compensation. Patrick should have the firm develop measurable criteria for assessing the quality and contribution of research received and the accuracy of the recommendations over time.
Proposal 2 = Distribution. A supervisory analyst should be appointed to review and approve items prior to external circulation to determine whether the criteria established in the policy have been met.
Proposal 3 = Reasonable Basis. Develop detailed, written guidance for supervisory analysts that establishes the due diligence procedures for judging whether a particular recommendation has a reasonable and adequate basis.
A and B are incorrect. Standard V(A): Diligence and Reasonable Basis recommends Patrick should most likely label the suggestion as follows:
Proposal 1 = Compensation. Patrick should have the firm develop measurable criteria for assessing the quality and contribution of research received and the accuracy of the recommendations over time.
Proposal 2 = Distribution. A supervisory analyst should be appointed to review and approve items prior to external circulation to determine whether the criteria established in the policy have been met.
Proposal 3 = Reasonable Basis. Develop detailed, written guidance for supervisory analyst that establishes the due diligence procedures for judging whether a particular recommendation has a reasonable and adequate basis.
4.
Which of the following CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct has most likely been violated in relation to the research report and purchase of PT Matias?
  • A.Suitability
  • B.Fair Dealing
  • C.Misrepresentation

参考答案A

解析A is correct. CFA Institute Standard III(C): Suitability has most likely been violated with the purchase of PT Matias since it was purchased for all client portfolios. The standard requires Members and Candidates responsible for managing a portfolio with a specific mandate, strategy, or style to take only investment actions that are consistent with the stated objectives and constraints of the portfolio. Northside manages individual accounts with conservative mandates for a variety of retirements funds. PT Matias most likely was not appropriate for those client accounts since it would be considered high risk because it has gone through a reorganization and is in a turnaround situation.
B is incorrect because there is no violation of CFA Institute Standard III(B): Fair Dealing, which requires Members and Candidates to deal fairly and objectively with all clients when providing investment analysis, making investment recommendations, taking investment action, or engaging in other professional activities. In this instance, all the clients were treated fairly because the stock was purchased in block trade.
C is incorrect because Burt has not violated CFA Institute Standard I(C): Misrepresentation, which requires that Members and Candidates not knowingly make any misrepresentations relating to investment analysis, recommendations, or actions or other professional activities. Burt sited management’s guidance alongside her own; therefore, there is no evidence of plagiarism.
5.
Has Burt most likely violated the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct during the new business presentations?
  • A.No
  • B.Yes, with regard to Duties to Clients
  • C.Yes, with regard to Disclosure of Conflicts

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Burt has most likely not violated any CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct during the new business presentations. She did not violate Standard VI(A): Disclosure of Conflicts, because there are no evident conflicts to disclose, even when she presented to the company under her coverage. At the time of the presentation, she had a sell rating on the stock, and there is no evidence of cross-departmental conflicts from the marketing department trying to influence her rating. She most likely did not violate Standard III: Duties to Clients either, because she has only reviewed the methodology used to research companies and determine a recommendation.
B and C are incorrect because Burt has not violated any CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct during the new business presentations.
6.
Which of Northside’s current personal trading policies is least consistent with CFA Institute recommended procedures for Standard VI(B): Priority of Transactions?
  • A.IPO restriction
  • B.Policy confidentiality
  • C.Blackout trading window

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Northside’s policy of keeping its employee trading policies confidential is not consistent with the CFA Institute recommended procedure for Standard VI(B): Priority of Transactions. The Standard states that upon request, Members and Candidates should fully disclose to investors their firm’s policies regarding personal investing. Northside’s policies restricting participation in IPOs and maintaining a blackout period, although narrow, are consistent with recommendations under Standard VI(B).
A is incorrect because Northside’s policy regarding IPOs is consistent with the recommendation under Standard VI(B) that states purchases of IPOs by investment personnel create conflicts of interest in two principal ways: First, participation in an IPO may have the appearance of taking away an attractive investment opportunity from clients for personal gain—a clear breach of the duty of loyalty to clients. Second, personal purchases in IPOs may have the appearance that the investment opportunity is being bestowed as an incentive to make future investment decisions for the benefit of the party providing the opportunity. Members and Candidates can avoid these conflicts or appearances of conflicts of interest by not participating in IPOs.
C is incorrect because Northside’s policy regarding a blackout period, although narrow, is consistent with the recommendation under Standard VI(B). The Standard states that investment personnel involved in the investment decision-making process should establish blackout periods prior to trades for clients so that managers cannot take advantage of their knowledge of client activity by “front-running” client trades.
Paul Charlent works for a London-based merchant bank that specializes in assisting small- and medium-sized companies in developing markets to place debt and equity issues with US and UK investors. Charlent is conducting exploratory analysis regarding possible relationships between developing market equity returns and various US and UK macroeconomic variables. He regresses monthly total returns of the Bangkok SET Index on one-month Libor (for a US dollar–denominated contract). The period of the study is from July 2006 to December 2013. To improve the statistical validity of the variables, for both the SET Index and Libor, Charlent uses the natural logarithms of one plus the monthly returns in the regression calculation. The results of the regression are shown in Exhibit 1 and Exhibit 2.题目图片Charlent suspects that his regression equation might not be well specified. In particular, he is concerned with the possibility that one or both of the time series in the regression exhibit a unit root. Using the Engle–Granger approach, he tests the residuals from the regression and rejects the null hypothesis that the error term has a unit root.
Charlent next regresses the natural logarithm of one plus the SET Index monthly returns on the natural logarithm of one plus Libor, the natural logarithm of one plus the effective Fed funds rate, and the $/£ exchange rate. The results are reported in Exhibit 3 and Exhibit 4. Charlent recalls that the null hypothesis of no positive serial correlation is rejected if the calculated Durbin–Watson (DW) statistic is less than the lower critical value and that the null hypothesis of no negative serial correlation is rejected if the calculated DW statistic exceeds 4 minus the lower critical value.
Exhibit 5 reports the pairwise correlations of the variables used in the second regression.题目图片题目图片Geoffrey Small, a colleague of Charlent, comments on the results of the two regressions. Small states that the highly significant F-statistic of the second regression along with the increased R2 of the second regression means that the addition of the Fed funds rate and the $/£ exchange rate to the analysis provides more reliable estimates of linear associations than the first regression.
7.
Based on the results in Exhibits 1 and 2, the most appropriate interpretation is that:
  • A.the variation in Libor does not explain the variation in SET Index returns.
  • B.Libor has a statistically significant linear relationship with returns of the SET Index.
  • C.there is a small but positive correlation between the SET Index and Libor.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. The coefficient of determination (R2) is 0.0263. Such a low R2 indicates that the regression has little explanatory power—that is, less than 3% of the variation in the SET Index is explained by the variation in Libor. The insignificance of the F-statistic in Exhibit 2 confirms this lack of explanatory power. The slope coefficient is also not significant (p-value = 0.1285), again confirming that this regression has little explanatory power.
B is incorrect. The F-test does not support the hypothesis of a significant linear relationship between the SET Index and Libor.
C is incorrect. The SET Index and Libor have negative correlation; note the sign of the slope coefficient.
8.
Using Exhibit 2 and two-tail t-tests to determine whether the coefficients are equal to zero at the 5% significance level, the null hypotheses are most likely:
  • A.not rejected for the intercept and rejected for the slope.
  • B.rejected for the intercept and not rejected for the slope.
  • C.rejected for both the intercept and the slope.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. The intercept coefficient of the regression line is 0.031. The p-value indicates that the probability of having a sample result of 0.031 when the underlying population coefficient is 0 is about 4.89%. Because this p-value is less than 5%, the null hypothesis is rejected for the intercept. The slope coefficient is –0.732. The p-value indicates that the probability of having a sample result of –0.732 when the underlying population coefficient is 0 is about 12.85%. Because the p-value exceeds the 5% level of significance, the null hypothesis is not rejected for the slope coefficient. Note that you can also answer the question by examining the reported confidence intervals. The 95% confidence interval for the intercept does not contain zero (null is rejected). The 95% confidence interval for the slope does contain zero (null is not rejected).
A is incorrect. The intercept is statistically significantly different from zero at the 5% level of significance. The slope is not.
C is incorrect. The intercept is statistically significantly different from zero at the 5% level of significance. The slope is not.
9.
Using the regression equation results reported in Exhibit 2, if the value for Libor is 3%, the point estimate of the associated return on the SET Index is closest to:
  • A.–2.16%.
  • B.0.94%.
  • C.0.90%.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. The regression equation is
ln(1 + SET Index return) = 0.031 – 0.732 × ln(1 + Libor)
If Libor is 3%, then
ln(1 + SET Index return) =0.031 – 0.732 × 0.02956 = 0.00936
Continuing,
exp[ln(1 + SET Index return)] = exp(0.00936)
Therefore,
1 + SET Index return = 1.00941
The estimate of the SET Index return is 0.941%.
A is incorrect. It uses 3 (not 0.03) as the entering argument to the regression equation and ignores ln form altogether: 0.031 – 0.732 × 3= –2.16%
B is incorrect. It does not adjust for the fact that the regression is based on ln(1 + return): 0.031 – 0.732 × 0.03 = 0.94%.
10.
The most appropriate conclusion that follows from the result of the Engle–Granger test is that the two time series are:
  • A.cointegrated and tests of the estimates of the intercept and slope are thus valid.
  • B.not cointegrated and tests of the estimates of the intercept and slope are thus valid.
  • C.cointegrated and tests of the estimates of the intercept and slope are thus not valid.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. If the (Engle–Granger) Dickey–Fuller test rejects the null hypothesis that the error term has a unit root (as Charlent’s test did), then the conclusion is that the error term in the regression is covariance stationary. Therefore, the two time series are cointegrated. The parameters and standard errors from linear regression will be consistent and will allow testing of the hypotheses about the long-term relationship between the two series.
11.
Based on Exhibits 3 and 4 and the reported Durbin–Watson (DW) statistic, the most appropriate conclusion is:
  • A.significant serial correlation is present and the standard errors are likely to be underestimated.
  • B.significant serial correlation is present and the standard errors are likely to be overestimated.
  • C.serial correlation is not significant and the standard errors are unbiased.

参考答案C

解析C is correct. The value of the DW statistic exceeds the upper critical value (1.9566 > 1.73). We fail to reject the null hypothesis of no positive serial correlation. The value of the DW statistic is less than the value (4 – 1.59) = 2.41. Thus, we also fail to reject the null hypothesis regarding negative serial correlation.
12.
Regarding Geoffrey Small’s statement about the second regression, which of the following is most accurate?
  • A.It is true that the second regression has substantially greater explanatory power than the first regression.
  • B.The second regression displays multicollinearity.
  • C.The F-statistic of the second regression is likely underestimated.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. The high pairwise correlations of Exhibit 5, especially the correlation between Libor and Fed funds, suggest a multicollinearity problem. In the presence of multicollinearity, R2s and F-statistics are overstated, and estimates of the coefficients become extremely imprecise and unreliable.
Anish Shah is doing a credit analysis on Silver Maple College (SMC), a mid-sized private university seeking to place a bond issue to finance a new sports facility on campus. Today, Shah is interested in determining the full extent of SMC’s obligations and its ability to support those obligations from operating cash flows. SMC is established as a not-for-profit organization and prepares its financial statements using IFRS (International Financial Reporting Standards).Shah starts his analysis by looking at SMC’s post-employment plans. He has found the following description of the plans offered (Exhibit 1) and has prepared summary information about the plans from the university’s 2017 notes to the financial statements (Exhibits 2, 3, and 4). To assess the long-term credit risk of SMC, Shah wants to determine the potential risk exposure presented from each post-employment plan and the associated future cash flows expected as well as the current level of funding for each plan.题目图片Upon studying the information in Exhibits 2 and 3 on SMC’s health care plan, Lucy Zhang, Shah’s assistant, asks him why the plan is unfunded.题目图片Reviewing the present value of the defined obligations (Exhibit 3), Shah notices that SMC has made changes in underlying assumptions of the plans (not shown). He instructs Zhang to prepare an analysis of the changes in each assumption and its impact on the obligation.
Zhang asks Shah, “Where will I find the information for that analysis?”题目图片Shah starts his cash flow analysis by determining the total cash outflow from the post-employment plans for SMC in 2017. He explains to Zhang that from an economic perspective, sometimes a portion of a company’s contribution to a plan should not be considered part of cash from operations. Zhang notes that SMC’s pension contribution exceeds it total pension cost for the period and asks how this excess would be classified on the cash flow statement.Shah’s credit rating will also consider the quality of SMC’s cash flows. With the planned issuance of a bond, Shah is concerned that attempts may have been made by SMC to increase cash flow from operations. He decides to use a conceptual framework to assess the quality of the financial reports. He starts by reviewing the statement of cash flows and notes that SMC's principal sources of operating cash inflows arise from tuition fees, investment income from the school’s large endowment fund, and in 2017, the receipt of a significant donation from a graduate in return for the naming rights to the proposed new sports facility. He also notes that investment income was classified as an investing activity in the previous years’ financial statements, which were not restated.
13.
Which of the three post-retirement plans should be of the greatest concern to Shah in assessing the long-term credit risk of SMC?
  • A.Health Care Plan
  • B.Pension Plan A
  • C.Pension Plan B

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Pension Plan A is a defined-benefit plan and possesses the greatest risk to SMC because the university will have to make up any shortfall in the promised benefits of the plan. Therefore, it should be of the greatest concern to Shah because the duration and amount of future cash flows required as benefit payments are very difficult to forecast and the plan is currently underfunded (using Exhibits 2 and 3: PVBO – Plan assets = $65,528 – $46,697 = $18,831). Although the Health Care Plan is also a form of defined-benefit plan, the future annual benefit cash outflows are capped (at $5,000 per employee), and the potential outlay per employee is much smaller than the defined benefit plan (Plan A). Pension Plan B is a defined-contribution plan, and the cash outflows for SMC are predictable and limited to its annual contributions.
A is incorrect. Although the Health Care Plan is also a form of defined-benefit the future benefit cash outflows are capped and the potential outlay per employee much smaller than the defined-benefit plan (Plan A).
C is incorrect. Pension Plan B is a defined-contribution plan, and the cash outflows for SMC are predictable and limited to its annual contributions.
14.
The least accurate explanation that Shah can give to Zhang’s question about the funded status of the Health Care Plan is that:
  • A.the associated expenses will be incurred in future periods.
  • B.the plan could possibly be eliminated if the costs become a burden.
  • C.funding is not normally required by government regulation.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. The cost of future benefits under the Health Care Plan results from current employee service. Although these costs will be paid out in future periods, they are expenses of the current period and therefore they might be expected to be funded. However, employers are not normally required by regulation to pre-fund plans involving other post-employment benefits, therefore they do not.
Since health care benefits are an optional employee benefit provided by the employer, the plan could be eliminated in the future if the costs became burdensome and/or the institution preferred to use those assets in current operations or other alternative ways.
C is incorrect. It is true that the company could cancel those plans as they are usually optional and hence they would not want to pre-fund them and lose access to those funds now.
B is incorrect. This is true—those optional plans are not usually regulated by governments.
15.
Zhang is most likely to find the information needed for her analysis of changes related to Exhibit 3 in the:
  • A.notes to the financial statements.
  • B.university’s pension plan documents.
  • C.management discussion and analysis.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Disclosures about pensions and post-employment benefits, including actuarial assumptions, are normally disclosed in the notes to the financial statements.
B is incorrect. The pension plan documents would define the terms and benefits but not the assumptions used to value the assets and liabilities.
C is incorrect. Although many risks are discussed in the MD&A, the actuarial assumptions are not one of the required disclosures.
16.
Based on Exhibit 2 and 4, SMC’s total cash outflow (in thousands) related to post-employment costs in 2017 is closest to:
  • A.$5,780.
  • B.$4,100.
  • C.$6,850.

参考答案C

解析C is correct. The total cash outflow is the sum of the contributions made by SMC for all three plans:
题目图片
A is incorrect. It includes the benefits paid for Plan A (and the Health Care Plan) instead of the contributions: 2,080 + 950 + 2,750 = 5,780.
B is incorrect. It forgets Pension Plan B (the defined contribution): 3,150 + 950 = 4,100.
17.
The best answer to Zhang’s question about the excess contributions is that they should be classified as a(n):
  • A.cash outflow in financing.
  • B.cash inflow in financing.
  • C.investing activity.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. From an economic perspective, the excess of SMC’s pension contributions over its total periodic pension costs can be viewed as a reduction in the pension obligation, similar to a principal payment on a loan. Thus, this amount is classified as a financing cash outflow
B is incorrect. Because the contributions are larger than the pension costs, there is a net reduction in the pension obligation, which indicates an outflow of cash. If the contributions were lower than the pension costs, and the pension obligation increased, it would be considered an inflow.
C is incorrect. The pension obligation is a long-term liability and can be considered a source of financing from an economic perspective. It is not an investment so changes in it would not be considered an investing activity.
18.
Based on his review of the statement of cash flows and the classification of investment income, the most appropriate conclusion Shah can reach on his assessment of the quality of SMC’s financial report is that the report is:
  • A.within GAAP (generally accepted accounting principles) but contains biased choices.
  • B.non-compliant accounting.
  • C.GAAP compliant and decision useful.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. SMC follows IFRS, which allows investment income to be classified as either an operating activity or an investing activity; therefore, the choice is GAAP compliant. But the change in classification could be considered a biased, or opportunistic, choice if the university were trying to increase its cash flow from operations in a year when it was issuing debt. The fact that the previous years were not restated would not be very decision useful.
B is incorrect. SMC follows IFRS which allows investment income to be classified as either an operating activity or an investing activity, therefore the choice is GAAP compliant.
C is incorrect. SMC follows IFRS, which allows investment income to be classified as either an operating activity or an investing activity, therefore the choice is GAAP compliant. But the change in classification could be considered a biased choice if the university was trying to increase its cash flow operations in a year when it was issuing debt. The fact that the previous years were not restated would not be very decision useful.
Monique Beaumont, Director of Finance of a small European based manufacturer, is reviewing the current year's requests for capital projects. This year Beaumont provided all departments with a template showing them how to categorize cash flows and calculate the NPV using the company’s WACC of 8% and tax rate of 30%.The first project she reviews is from the production manager. He would like to automate a process in the production line. Using the template, the production manager provides the data in Exhibit 1 for two options: to purchase a new machine or a refurbished model. The refurbished model is less expensive but provides reduced cost savings and would need to be replaced in two years. Beaumont realizes the analysis as presented is not directly comparable and undertakes to complete an equivalent annual annuity analysis.题目图片Beaumont questions the production manager about the assumption of being able to acquire another refurbished machine in two years. The manager says he believes a refurbished machine should be available, but the cost would likely have increased to €52,500 by then. He does not think the operating savings would change. Based on this new information, Beaumont decides it is better to compare the projects using the least common multiple of lives approach.Next Beaumont reviews a request to replace the company’s five current diesel-powered delivery trucks with electric ones. The current trucks are still in good condition, but the company’s CEO thinks it would be good for the company’s image to use electric trucks. An analyst in the CEO’s office prepares the truck replacement proposal with the cost comparison in Exhibit 2.题目图片Beaumont determines there is no effect on net working capital, the information in Exhibit 2 is prepared using accounting estimates, and that gains on the sale of trucks are taxed at regular rates.Despite the cost savings from operating electric trucks, Beaumont determines the proposal has a negative NPV. Before making a recommendation, Beaumont meets with the procurement manage and states: "If the price of diesel fuel increases, the cost savings of the electric trucks will be more attractive. I expect the demand of the company's product will remain unchanged and will be below capacity. I suggest we start with just one truck until we can confirm the reliability of the cost savings before deciding on replacing all trucks."
19.
Based on Exhibit 1, the NPV using the equivalent annual annuity for the refurbished option is closest to:
  • A.€538.
  • B.€892.
  • C.€1,000.

参考答案C

解析C is correct because the equivalent annual annuity "(EAA) is the annuity payment (series of equal annual payments over the projects life) that is equivalent in value to the NPV". Based only on Exhibit 1, for the refurbished option the payment for a two-year annuity equal to the NPV of €1,783 is €1,000. Using a financial calculator PV = 1,783, N= 2, i=8% compute PMT.
A is incorrect because €538 is the EAA calculated based on the NPV of 1,783 over 4 years, not 2 years. It does not consider that the machine would need to be replaced after two years. Using a financial calculator PV = 1,783, N= 4, i=8% compute PMT.
B is incorrect because it does not correctly consider the time value of money in calculating the equivalent payment. €892 is equal to the NPV €1,783 divided by 2 years (1,783/2=892).
20.
Using the production manager’s estimate of the cost of the refurbished machine in two years, the NPV using the least common multiple of lives approach for that option is closest to:
  • A.€1,066.
  • B.€1,169.
  • C.€3,312.

参考答案B

解析B is correct because "..the least common multiple of lives approach, the analyst extends the time horizon of analysis so that the lives of both projects will divide exactly into the horizon." In this case to calculate the least common multiple the refurbished project would be repeated in year two to have a life of four years, equivalent to the option for a new machine.
Calculate the NPV for the repeated portion using the new cost of €52,500, discount the NPV to the present and add it to the NPV of the original project.
NPV for repetition in year 2: (52,500) + 30,000/(1.08)^1 + 28,000/(1.08)^2 = -716.74
The PV of that added to the original NPV = 1,783 + (–716.74)/(1.08)^2 = 1,168.52.
A is incorrect because it correctly calculates the NPV of the repeated project but does not discount the NPV of the repeated portion just adds it to the original NPV: 1,783 + (–716.74) = 1,066.26.
NPV of repeated project = -52,500 + 30,000/(1.08)^1 + 28,000/(1.08)^2 = –716.64
C is incorrect because this calculation does not make the adjustment for the increase in the cost of the refurbished unit; therefore, it has the same NPV in year 2 as the original project and the LCM = 1,783 + 1,783/(1.08)^2 = 3,311.64.
21.
The initial cash outflow for the analysis of the proposal to replace the trucks is:
  • A.€164,000.
  • B.€170,000.
  • C.€194,000.

参考答案A

解析A is correct because the electric truck proposal is a replacement project. Therefore, the relevant initial cash flows include the outlays for the new trucks less the inflows of the after-tax of selling the existing trucks plus any change in net working capital (NWC). NWC is not affected by the change in trucks.
Outlay = FCInv + NWCInv ? Sal0 + t(Sal0? B0)
Where, FCInv = investment in new fixed capital
NWCInv = investment in net working capital
Sal0 = cash proceeds (salvage value) from sale of old fixed capital
B0 = book value of old fixed capital
= 250,000 + 0 – 80,000 + 0.30 × (80,000 – 100,000)
= 164,000
B is incorrect because it ignores the taxes on the salvage value: 250,000 – 80,000 = 170,000.
C is incorrect because it excludes the book value of the existing trucks when calculating the tax effect. 250,000 – 80,000 – 0.30 × 80,000 = 194,000.
22.
The price of diesel fuel on the electric truck proposal is best described as a:
  • A.price setting option.
  • B.fundamental option.
  • C.production-flexibility option.

参考答案B

解析B is correct because it is a fundamental option. The profitability of the project depends on the cost savings of operating electric trucks vs. diesel trucks which depends on the price of fuel vs. electricity. "Fundamental Options. [T]he whole investment is essentially an option. The payoffs from the investment are contingent on an underlying assets, just like most financial options. For example, the value of an oil well or refinery investment is contingent on the price of oil. The value of a gold mine is contingent on the price of gold. If oil prices are low, you likely would not choose to drill a well. If oil prices are high, you go ahead and drill. Many R&D (research and development) projects also look like options."
A is incorrect because in a price-setting option, "suppose demand exceeds capacity. By increasing prices, the company could benefit from the excess demand, which it cannot do by increasing production." The demand for the product will remain unchanged and the capacity will not be exceeded. Therefore, there is no opportunity to adjust price of the product for this project.
C is incorrect because a production flexibility option "offer[s] the operational flexibility to alter production when demand varies from what is forecast." Demand of the product will remain unchanged and hence there is no opportunity for production-flexibility option.
Malory McVee, a partner at a consulting firm, recently started working with a new client, Sierra Health (Sierra). Sierra is a healthcare management company managing hospitals across major cities in the United States. Over the last two years, Sierra's hospital bed occupancy rate has declined by 25%, bucking the industry trend. Sierra believes it's due to a higher percentage of employees working virtually, allowing them to relocate to less populated areas. Sierra's board has asked McVee to start preparing documentation to take the company public. Going public will help finance the roll out of virtual medical services using new technology and the building of small medical clinics within supermarkets in rural areas, and both initiatives are expected to increase the number of patients.McVee instructs her financial analyst, Alan Wright, to analyze Sierra's historical financials and start building a financial model to determine a fair offering price. Wright asks, "What length of time should I use for the forecast horizon? The industry average annual portfolio turnover for equity strategies is about 33%, reflecting a three year investment time horizon, but our DCF model calls for five-year forecasts. Maybe it should be 10 years because it's likely to take at least 6 to 7 years to have normalized earnings reflected in the financial statements."Wright immediately follows with a second question, asking, "Keeping in mind I would like to use a financial model that uncovers implicit assumptions or errors, what forecast modeling methodology should I use once I'm done with the historical analysis?"Wright's historical analysis finds Sierra's medical staff salaries (considered costs of goods sold (COGS), a standard practice in the industry) have increased significantly over the last year to compensate for labor shortages and overtime. Sierra has been able to continue with its standard of care practice of three medical staff for every bed occupied. Wright notes there is increasing pressure by the nursing staff for pay raises, as their past pay raises have have lagged those of other medical staff. He also understands it is difficult to pass on cost increases to the patients due to long-term agreements with insurance companies that pay the majority of the patients' medical bills. With this in mind, Wright considers which method of estimating future COGS would be the most accurate:Method 1 Comparing Sierra's gross margins with those of its competitorsMethod 2 Breaking down the costs into price and volume componentsMethod 3 Extrapolating GOGS from the percentage of sales from historical trendsPrior to finalizing his forecasts, Wright makes the following notes about competitive forces Sierra will likely face with the introduction of virtual services.Note 1 Most medical services companies currently have the capability to provide virtual medical services so the barriers to entry are low, especially in that the IT needed only has to be in one central location - not at each medical facility. How can Sierra make their IT platform more user friendly and reduce waiting time for an appointment?Note 2 Patients tend to be quite loyal to their doctors. It's a strong relationship so they don't move to a new doctor frequently or easily. What can Sierra do to strengthen the relationships between the patients and their doctors even more?Note 3 Generally speaking, patients want lower health insurance premium costs but most also want health care to remain within the private sector rather than be run by the government. I think the patients' ability to demand lower prices is restricted due to the current structure of the industry and the influence of strong lobbies. Increases in health care costs are generally not felt directly by the patient with insurance coverage. Keep an eye open for any potential new government legislation on controlling medical costs and health insurance, although in my opinion it is unlikely over the next decade.
23.
In response to Wright's first question, which of the following is McVee's most appropriate response?
  • A.Three years
  • B.Five years
  • C.Ten years

参考答案C

解析C is correct because a short-term income forecast period is likely inappropriate given current changes in the industry with demographic shifts caused by people working virtually allowing them to move away from major cities and the introduction of new technology allowing some medical services to be offered virtually. As it is unknown if this trend is temporary or not, "longer-term projections often provide a better representation of the normalized earnings potential of a company than a short-term forecast, especially when certain temporary factors are present. Normalized earnings are the expected level of mid-cycle earnings for a company in the absence of any unusual or temporary factors that impact profitability (either positively or negatively)." In this case normalized earnings are not expected until at least 6 - 7 years, therefore 10 years is the most appropriate forecast period.
A is incorrect because a three year forecast period may be too short given current changes in the industry with demographic shifts caused by people working virtually allowing them to move away from major cities and the introduction of new technology allowing some medical services to be offered virtually. As it is unknown if this trend is temporary or not, "longer-term projections often provide a better representation of the normalized earnings potential of a company than a short-term forecast, especially when certain temporary factors are present. Normalized earnings are the expected level of mid-cycle earnings for a company in the absence of any unusual or temporary factors that impact profitability (either positively or negatively)."
B is incorrect because a five year forecast period may be too short given current changes in the industry with demographic shifts caused by people working virtually allowing them to move away from major cities and the introduction of new technology allowing some medical services to be offered virtually. As it is unknown if this trend is temporary or not, "longer-term projections often provide a better representation of the normalized earnings potential of a company than a short-term forecast, especially when certain temporary factors are present. Normalized earnings are the expected level of mid-cycle earnings for a company in the absence of any unusual or temporary factors that impact profitability (either positively or negatively)."
24.
What is McVee's most appropriate response to Wright's second question?
  • A.Hybrid approach
  • B.Top-down approach
  • C.Bottom up approach

参考答案A

解析A is correct because to meet Wright's objective, he should use a hybrid approach. "A hybrid approach combines elements of both top-down and bottom-up analysis and can be useful for uncovering implicit assumptions or errors that may arise from using a single approach." "For example, the analyst may use a market growth and market share approach to model individual product lines or business segments. Then, the analyst may aggregate the individual projections to arrive at a forecast for the overall company." Given Sierra has in the past faced lower bed occupancy rates, bucking industry trends, there is a possibility internal inefficiencies are negatively impacting potential for future growth. Changes in the industry due to a change in where workers live and the introduction of virtual medical services will also likely greatly impact future revenue projections. Hence, the best methodology to predict future revenue would be to use a hybrid approach.
B is incorrect because using a top-down approach does not meet Wright's objective for uncovering implicit assumptions or errors. "A hybrid approach combines elements of both top-down and bottom-up analysis and can be useful for uncovering implicit assumptions or errors that may arise from using a single-approach." Hence a hybrid model is the best methodology to predict future revenue to ensure the model considers both economic and industry trends as well as looking at the company's ability to fill hospital beds. A top-down approach will likely not consider Sierra's challenges in having a bed capacity rate that matches the industry. This indicates there are some specific company issues that need to be reflected in the financial model. There is a possibility internal inefficiencies are negatively impacting potential for future growth. Changes in the industry due to a change in where workers live and the introduction of virtual medical services will also likely greatly impact future revenue projections. Hence, the best methodology to predict future revenue would be to use a hybrid approach which "combines elements of both top-down and bottom-up analysis and can be useful for uncovering implicit assumptions or errors that may arise from using a single approach."
C is incorrect because using a bottom up approach does not meet Wright's objective for uncovering implicit assumptions or errors. "A hybrid approach combines elements of both top-down and bottom-up analysis and can be useful for uncovering implicit assumptions or errors that may arise from using a single-approach." Hence a hybrid model is the best methodology to predict future revenue to ensure the model considers both economic and industry trends as well as looking at the company's ability to fill hospital beds. Using a time series or a capacity-based approach utilized in a bottom up approach will not accurately reflect industry shifts in demographics and technological changes through the introduction of virtual medical services. Continuing shifts in demographics and any increase in the use of virtual medical services will impact future revenue streams.
25.
Which of the following methods should Wright use to most accurately forecast Sierra's future COGS?
  • A.Method 1
  • B.Method 2
  • C.Method 3

参考答案B

解析B is correct because to be most effective, labor costs should be broken down to determine how rising salaries and overtime will impact COGS. Given Sierra has a standard of care of three medical staff to every bed occupancy, the bed occupancy will need to be forecast (volume) along with the weighted staff costs (determining the breakdown of the three staff (e.g. a nurse, a doctor, or technician) to reflect rising salaries (price component). "Because cost of goods sold is relatively a large cost, a small error in this item can have a material impact on the forecasted operating profit. Thus, analysts should consider whether an analysis of these costs (e.g., by segment, by product category, or by volume and price components), when such an analysis is possible, can improve forecasting accuracy."
A is incorrect because comparing gross margins with competitors' gross margins is typically a "cross check for estimating a realistic gross margin", not the starting point for determining COGS and subsequently calculating gross margins. "Competitors' gross margins can also provide a useful cross check for estimating a realistic gross margin. Gross margin differences among companies within a sector should logically relate to difference in their business operations." In this case, Sierra appears to have opposing trends in their bed occupancy rates (their rates are declining and bucking the industry trend) so looking at competitors' gross margins may not be useful.
C is incorrect because while "GOGS has a direct link with sales, [thus] forecasting this item as a percentage of sales is usually a good approach", taking this approach based on historical trends would not be appropriate due to the increasing medical staff salaries and the need for overtime to meet Sierra's standard of care policy of three medical staff for ever bed occupied. To be most effective, labor costs should be broken down to determine how rising salaries and overtime will impact COGS. Given Sierra has a standard of care of three medical staff to every bed occupancy, the bed occupancy will need to be forecast (volume) along with the weighted staff costs (determining the breakdown of the three staff (e.g. a nurse, a doctor, or technician) to reflect rising salaries (price component). "Because cost of goods sold is relatively a large cost, a small error in this item can have a material impact on the forecasted operating profit. Thus, analysts should consider whether an analysis of these costs (e.g., by segment, by product category, or by volume and price components), when such an analysis is possible, can improve forecasting accuracy."
26.
Which of Wright's notes reflects the highest risk to Sierra's profitability?
  • A.Note 1
  • B.Note 2
  • C.Note 3

参考答案A

解析A is correct because low barriers to entry means the threat of new entrants can be large. "Companies in industries in which the threat of new entrants is high because of the presence of above-market returns face downward pressure on profitability." Consequently, Wright should build this risk factor into his forecast.
B is incorrect because patients tend to be loyal to their doctors once the relationship has been established. This is because a level of trust and familiarity has been built over time. Most people do not switch doctors frequently, even if prices of services change. Therefore, the threat of substitutes, i.e. going to a different doctor is not a huge risk to predicting sales patterns. "If numerous substitutes exist and switching costs are low, companies have limited pricing power."
C is incorrect because currently patients (customers) do not have bargaining power regarding pricing of medical costs or health insurance premiums due to the structure of the industry and the influence of strong lobbies. Based on Wright's opinion, it is also unlikely to change through any new government legislation introduced over the next decade. "Bargaining power of customers is generally lower in markets with a fragmented customer base, a non-standardized product, and high switchings costs for the customer." In Sierra's case, the patient's loyalty to their doctor implies high switchings costs. In addition, because the majority of patients' costs are covered by their health insurance, they tend not to try to influence prices directly.
Ian Aaron owns a small consulting firm that specializes in private company valuation. He is asked to make a presentation at a local university about his company's role in the investment industry, which he agrees to do.Aaron opens his presentation by stating there are key differences between public and private company valuations. He add that the characteristics of private companies and the absence of universally recognized valuation methods have lead to the development of diverse valuation practices. He notes that some companies grow through acquisitions and that the prices paid in such transactions need to be evaluated. He mentions there are many additional concerns he looks to address as he begins an evaluation and lists the following: Agency issues, quality of financial statements, and concentration of control.Aaron explains how private company earnings can potentially require significant adjustments in order to estimate the company’s normalized earnings. It may be necessary to adjust for non-recurring, non-economic, or other unusual items to eliminate anomalies and facilitate comparisons. A member of the audience asks about a new business his family recently started and comments:Comment 1 Revenues are limited, family members working for the business have deferred their compensation.Comment 2 The business operates in a building that is currently owned by a family member.Comment 3 The few employees the business does have are paid similar to other start-ups in our area.Arron next discusses how standard ways of determining an appropriate discount rate are not applicable to private firm valuation. He points out that several adjustments may be necessary to incorporate the real risk of the investment. He states the following may affect the selection of an appropriate discount rate:Statement 1 Due to its ease of access and liquidity, private companies tend to rely on bank financing.Statement 2 In evaluating an acquisition the buyer’s cost of capital is irrelevant.Statement 3 An adjustment for managerial experience is rarely necessary.Aaron concludes his presentation with a discussion concerning control. He explains that lack of control discounts (DLOC) become necessary for valuing non-controlling equity interests in private companies. He stresses that the application of a DLOC is fact-specific, and estimates vary dramatically. He remarks that whether the Guideline Transaction Method (GTM) or Guideline Public Company Method(GPCM) is used to determine a valuation, a discount for lack of control should be applied.
27.
With regard to private versus public company valuation, do Aaron's concerns include both company specific and stock specific factors?
  • A.Yes
  • B.No regarding stock specific factors
  • C.No regarding company specific factors

参考答案A

解析A is correct because Aaron's concerns includes agency issues, quality of financial statements and concentration of control. Agency issues and quality of financial statements are company specific factors. Concentration of control can be viewed as both a stock specific factor and a company-specific factor. Therefore Aaron's comment address both stock specific and company specific factors.
B is incorrect because Aaron's concerns include agency issues, quality of financial statements and concentration of control. Agency issues and quality of financial statements are company specific factors. Concentration of control can be viewed as both a stock specific factor and a company-specific factor. Therefore Aaron's comment address both stock specific and company specific factors not just stock specific factors.
C is incorrect because Aaron's concerns includes agency issues, quality of financial statements and concentration of control. Agency issues and quality of financial statements are company specific factors. Concentration of control can be viewed as both a stock specific factor and a company-specific factor. Therefore Aaron's comment address both stock specific and company specific factors not just company specific factors.
28.
Which of the audience member's comments would least likely require an adjustment to normalize earnings?
  • A.Comment 1
  • B.Comment 2
  • C.Comment 3

参考答案C

解析C is correct because Comment 3: The few employees the business does have are paid similar to other start-ups in our area, would least likely require an adjustment to normalize earnings. Their compensation is commensurate with market levels required by employees performing similar activities for other firms and would not require an adjustment to normalize earnings.
A is incorrect because Comment 1: Revenues are limited, family members working for the business have deferred their compensation, would require an adjustment to normalize earnings. "For private companies with limited profits or reported losses, expenses may actually be understated with the reported income of the entity overstated. Owners active in the business may not take compensation commensurate with market levels required by an employee for similar activities."
B is incorrect because Comment 2: The business operates in a building that is currently owned by a family member would most likely require an adjustment to normalize earnings. We do not know if the company is paying rent, we do know that revenues are limited so it is likely they are paying below market rates if they are paying rent at all. "If real estate is leased to the private company by a related entity, the level of expense may require an adjustment to a market rental rate. If real estate is leased from an unrelated party but the rental charge is not at a market level, an adjustment to normalize this expense may also be appropriate."
29.
Which of Aaron's statements regarding the selection of an appropriate discount rate is accurate?
  • A.Statement 1
  • B.Statement 2
  • C.Statement 3

参考答案B

解析B is correct because Statement 2: In evaluating an acquisition the buyer’s cost of capital is irrelevant is accurate. "In evaluating an acquisition, finance theory indicates that the cost of capital used should be based on the target company’s capital structure and the riskiness of the target company’s cash flows—the buyer’s cost of capital is irrelevant."
A is incorrect because Statement 1: Due to its ease of access and liquidity, private companies tend to rely on bank financing is not accurate. "In calculating a weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for a valuation based on FCFF, analysts should note that a private company may have less access to debt financing than a similar public company. This lesser access means the private company may need to rely more on equity financing, which would tend to increase its WACC."
C is incorrect because Statement 3: An adjustment for managerial experience is rarely necessary is not accurate. "Management of a private company (on whom analysts may need to rely for forecasts) may have less experience forecasting future financial performance. Projections may reflect excessive optimism or pessimism. Any adjustments to a discount rate to account for projection risk or managerial inexperience in forecasting, however, would typically be highly judgmental."
30.
Is Aaron's remark regarding application of a discount for lack of control (DLOC) accurate?
  • A.Yes
  • B.No regarding Guideline Transaction Method (GTM)
  • C.No regarding Guideline Public Company Method (GPCM)

参考答案C

解析C is correct because Aaron remarks when using either Guideline Transaction (GTM) or Guideline Public Company (GPCM) a discount for lack of control should be applied is not accurate. While application of DLOC is expected when using GTM to value a controlling interest, application of DLOC is not expected when using GPCM to value a minority interest. The following sets forth the typical application of DLOC based on the different methods of valuation:
题目图片
Wanda Wallace manages the fixed-income portfolio for an Australian Dollar (AUD)20 billion superannuation fund (the Fund). Wallace has been actively using CDS to manage the credit exposure of her portfolio, both for trading and hedging purposes. All of the Fund's CDS contracts conform to the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) specifications and the related transactions adhere to ISDA protocols.
Wallace's portfolio has a AUD100 million position in Adamant Mining (Adamant) 5-year senior unsecured bond (Bond 2), and she considers purchasing protection to hedge against her exposure. The details of the CDS are presented in Exhibit 1.题目图片Wallace purchases protection with a notional amount of AUD100 million using the above CDS. One month later, Adamant experiences a credit event, and its credit spread widens by 400bps as a result.
Apart from hedging with CDSs, Wallace is also contemplating trading ideas using them, and has been examining several companies on her shortlist. Below are her expectations on Brilliance Oil (Brilliance), Colossal Energy (Colossal), and Devotion Inc (Devotion) in the energy sector.
Expectation 1:Brilliance's credit curve will flatten, while Colossal's credit curve will steepen
Expectation 2:Brilliance credit spread will narrow, while Colossal's credit spread will widen
In response to her expectations of Brilliance and Colossal, Wallace is considering the following trade strategies:
Strategy 1:Buying short term credit protection and selling long term credit protection for Colossal
Strategy 2:Selling long term credit protection for Brilliance, while buying long term credit protection for Colossal
Wallace also anticipates that Devotion will undergo a leveraged buyout, issuing large amounts of debt to privatize all of its publicly traded shares.
31.
The upfront premium required to buy credit protection using Adamant's 5-year CDS is closest to:
  • A.4% notional.
  • B.5% notional.
  • C.6% notional.

参考答案A

解析A is correct because "to buy a 5-year CDS protection, an investor would have to pay a 500 bp coupon plus the present value of the difference between that coupon and the current market spread 600 bps. In this case, the upfront premium would be approximately 100 bps × 4 duration, or 4% of the notional."
B is incorrect because the correct answer should be 4% of the notional. A 5% notional is incorrectly derived by using the maturity of the CDS instead of the duration in the calculation. Consequently, the calculation of the upfront premium becomes 100 bps × 5 = 500bps, or 5% of the notional. Alternatively, it is also the coupon rate.
C is incorrect because the correct answer should be 4% of the notional. A 6 % notional is incorrectly derived by assuming the credit spread of 600bps to be the upfront payment.
32.
The estimated profit (in AUD millions) from Adamant's CDS price change immediately after the credit event in the first month is closest to:
  • A.10
  • B.16
  • C.20

参考答案A

解析A is correct because "the percentage price change is estimated as the change in spread 400] bps multiplied by the duration 4, or 16%. The profit to the investor is 16% times the notional AUD100 million, or AUD16 million."
B is incorrect because the correct answer should be AUD16 million. This is a plausible answer if the change in spread 400bps is added to the credit spread of 600bps. Consequently, the calculation becomes 400bps + 600bps = 10% of the notional of AUD100 million, or AUD10 million.
C is incorrect because the correct answer should be AUD16 million. This is a plausible answer if the maturity of the CDS is used instead of the duration in the calculation. Consequently, the calculation becomes 400 bps × 5 = 20% of the notional of AUD100 million, or AUD20 million.
33.
Based on Wallace's expectations on Brilliance and Colossal, which of the following trading strategies would most likely be profitable?
  • A.Strategy 1 only
  • B.Strategy 2 only
  • C.Both Strategy 1 and Strategy 2

参考答案B

解析B is correct because Strategy 2 involves selling long term credit protection for Brilliance, while buying long term credit protection for Colossal. According to Expectation 2, Wallace expects that "Brilliance credit spread will narrow, while Colossal's credit spread will widen". "A long/short credit trade… is a bet that the credit position of one entity will improve relative to that of another… the credit quality of Brilliance will improve and that of Colossal will weaken, so selling protection on Brilliance and buying protection on Colossal would be appropriate." Strategy 1 involves buying short term credit protection and selling long term credit protection for Colossal, which is not a profitable strategy given Expectation 1 where Wallace expects that "Colossal's credit curve will steepen".
A is incorrect because Strategy 1 involves buying short term credit protection and selling long term credit protection for Colossal. According to Expectation 1, Wallace expects that "Colossal's credit curve will steepen", and "a steeper flatter curve means that long-term credit risk increases decreases relative to short-term credit risk. An investor who believes that long-term credit risk will increase relative to short-term credit risk credit curve steepening can buy protection by buying a long-term single-name CDS or selling a long-term CDS index and sell protection by selling a short-term single-name CDS or buying a short-term CDS index."
C is incorrect because while Strategy 2 is profitable, Strategy 1 is not. Strategy 2 involves selling long term credit protection for Brilliance, while buying long term credit protection for Colossal. According to Expectation 2, Wallace expects that "Brilliance credit spread will narrow, while Colossal's credit spread will widen", thus Strategy 2 is a profitable strategy. However, Strategy 1 involves buying short term credit protection and selling long term credit protection for Colossal, which is not a profitable strategy given Expectation 1 where Wallace expects that "Colossal's credit curve will steepen".
34.
Based on Wallace's expectation on Devotion, which of the following trading will be the most profitable?
  • A.Selling credit protection, and buying the underlying stock
  • B.Buying credit protection, and selling the underlying stock
  • C.Buying credit protection, as well as buying the underlying stock

参考答案C

解析C is correct because "[t]he investor might consider buying the stock and buying credit protection. Both legs will profit if the LBO occurs because the stock price will rise as the company repurchases all outstanding equity and the CDS price will rise as its spread widens to reflect the increased probability of default."
A is incorrect because while the stock leg will be profitable, the credit protection leg is likely to suffer a loss. "[T]he stock price will rise as the company repurchases all outstanding equity and the CDS price will rise as its spread widens to reflect the increased probability of default."
B is incorrect because while the credit protection leg will be profitable, the stock leg is likely to suffer a loss. "[T]he stock price will rise as the company repurchases all outstanding equity and the CDS price will rise as its spread widens to reflect the increased probability of default."
Wabash Trading Advisers is a commodities trading and advisory firm with particular emphasis on the grains and livestock markets. Its clients include major food companies, financial institutions, and trading companies.Tomas Gorski recently joined Wabash as a commodity analyst after several years with another firm as an equity analyst. He meets with a senior commodity analyst at Wabash, Pilar Moreno. She asks Gorski, “What differences are there between valuing commodities and valuing equities?” In response, Gorski makes the following statements.Statement 1 Commodity valuation focuses on supply and demand, whereas equity valuation focuses on discounted cash flows.Statement 2 Commodities do not generate future cash flows beyond what can be realized through their purchase and sale.Statement 3 Equities and commodities are both considered financial assets.Moreno explains to Gorski that Wabash does not participate in all of the commodity sectors. “We have intentionally chosen to avoid base metals, precious metals, and energy,” she says.Gorski responds, “It makes sense to concentrate on commodities that have similar characteristics. Even though metals and energy may require storage, they are non-perishable and are not affected by weather. Livestock is perishable and can only be stored for a very short period, whereasgrain can be stored longer.”Moreno describes how some of Wabash’s clients hedge positions for critical commodities used in manufacturing. To illustrate, she shows Gorski data for a position taken on behalf of Platte River Foods. The position is now close to expiration.题目图片Moreno continues, “One of Wabash’s oldest clients, Fond du Lac, has been in business for more than 100 years and has developed sophisticated pricing models. Currently, their models predict that the price of corn is poised to more than double in the next six months. Fond du Lac has purchased a large amount of corn in the spot market and has taken delivery at its storage facilities. When the price increase occurs, they intend to sell the corn in the spot market.”Moreno asks Gorski to help her prepare a market overview to include in all client presentations. Gorski collects the spot and futures prices of three commodities.题目图片
35.
Which of Gorski’s statements about the differences in the valuation of equities and commodities is least likely correct?
  • A.Statement 1
  • B.Statement 2
  • C.Statement 3

参考答案C

解析C is correct. While equities represent financial assets, commodities are almost always physical assets (the exception being newer classes of commodities, such as electricity or weather).
A is incorrect because the statement is true. The standard financial instruments that are based on commodities are not financial assets, but derivative contracts with finite lifetimes. These contracts can and do have value, but they are contingent on other factors, such as the price of the underlying commodity.
B is incorrect because the statement is correct. Commodity valuation focuses on supply and demand; stock valuation focuses on discounted cash flows.
36.
Gorski’s response to Moreno regarding metals, energy, livestock, and grains is least likely correct with respect to:
  • A.perishability.
  • B.weather.
  • C.storage.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Because energy production is often located in coastal zones, it can be susceptible to severe weather conditions, such as hurricanes. In addition, energy demand is seasonal, with gasoline consumption rising in summer months and fuel oil consumption increasing in cold weather. All of the commodities mentioned (energy, metals, grains, and livestock) can be stored, although in the case of livestock, only for a short period. Livestock is highly perishable.
A is incorrect because energy and metals are non-perishable. Grains and softs (coffee, cocoa, cotton, and sugar) are essentially non-perishable, as long as they are stored properly. On the other hand, livestock is highly perishable.
C is incorrect because energy and metals can be stored almost indefinitely. Grains, softs, and livestock can also be stored.
37.
The total return for the Platte River Foods hedge position is closest to:
  • A.5.5%.
  • B.5.7%.
  • C.5.3%.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Total return is the sum of the spot return, the roll return, and the collateral return.
Total return = Price return + Roll return + Collateral return
Total return = Price return + Roll return + (Risk-free rate × Initial collateral required)
4.0% + 1.5% + (1% × 20%) = 4.0% + 1.5% + 0.2%
= 5.7%
A is incorrect. Total return is not the price return plus the roll return: 4% + 1.5% = 5.5%.
C is incorrect. Total return is not the price return plus the roll return minus the collateral return: 4% + 1.5% – 0.2% = 5.3%.
38.
In order to roll forward Platte River Foods’ current exposure and maintain its dollar value, Moreno would:
  • A.buy 2,000 near-term contracts and sell 3,000 of the longer-term contracts.
  • B.sell 2,000 near-term contracts and buy 2,000 of the longer-term contracts.
  • C.sell 2,000 near-term contracts and buy 3,000 of the longer-term contracts.

参考答案C

解析C is correct. In order to maintain the $1,500,000 exposure to the commodity, Moreno would sell the current contracts and purchase enough contracts to maintain the $1,500,000 exposure. The $1.5 million exposure represents 2,000 current contracts ($1,500,000/$750 = 2,000). In turn, Moreno would then purchase 3,000 contracts at $500 ($1,500,000/$500 = 3,000 contracts).
A is incorrect because Moreno would not buy at the current contract price and then sell contracts at the longer-term price. That is the reverse of what Moreno needs to do.
B is incorrect because in doing so, Platte River Foods would not maintain the $1.5 million exposure desired. By only purchasing a like number of contracts, Platte Foods’ exposure would drop from $1.5 million to $1.0 million.
39.
Fond du Lac would most likely be acting as a(n):
  • A.speculator.
  • B.arbitrageur.
  • C.informed investor.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Arbitrageurs have the ability to inventory physical commodities and can capitalize on mispricing between the commodity (along with storage and financing cost) and the futures price by purchasing the commodity in the spot market and holding it in storage until a future date.
A is incorrect because speculators trade commodities without ever taking physical possession.
C is incorrect because informed investors primarily keep commodity futures markets efficient by capitalizing on mispricing attributable to a lack of information in the marketplace. As with speculators, informed investors do not take physical possession of the commodity for storage until a future date.
40.
Based on the information presented in Exhibit 2, the commodity most likely in contango is:
  • A.lean hogs.
  • B.live cattle.
  • C.corn.

参考答案C

解析C is correct. Spot prices for corn are lower than its futures prices. When the spot price of a commodity is lower than its futures price, the situation is called “contango.”
B is incorrect because the spot price for live cattle is higher than both the 3-month and 6-month futures prices, a situation called backwardation.
A is incorrect because the spot price for lean hogs is higher than its 3-month futures price (backwardation) but lower than its 6-month futures price (contango).
Cardinal Research is an institutional investment advisory firm. William Bergen is Head of Research. Frank McKesson is a senior research analyst. Bergen and McKesson are discussing techniques used to evaluate investment strategies.Bergen provides an investment strategy hypothesis: "A multifactor model portfolio that is over-weighted with larger capitalization stocks will produce superior risk adjusted returns". Bergen selects the Russell 1000 as the investment universe. He selects earnings yield, earnings momentum and return on equity as fundamental factors. For each factor, the top 300 stocks will be equal weighted and collectively represent 75% of the portfolio. The historical return of the Russell 1000 is 10.0%. The risk-free interest rate averaged 2.5%. For the factor allocation benchmark portfolio, the fundamental factors are equal weighted. For the factor allocation risk parity portfolio, the fundamental factors are weighted by risk contribution. The time period is 1995 to 2020. The results of a historical investment simulation for the multi-factor model portfolio are presented as Exhibit 1.题目图片Bergen admits that investors commonly make mistakes in backtesting an investment strategy. He makes three comments:
Comment 1 Data snooping is a form of survivorship bias in which index constituents include only companies that have survived over a measurement period.Comment 2 Point in time data is used by analysts to correct mistakes that are inherent in survivorship bias.Comment 3 Data revision is a form of look-ahead bias in which multiple backtesting iterations are conducted to attain a desired outcome.Bergen states that during the period 1995 to 2020, there were economic recessions and expansions, as well as periods of of high and low options market volatility. The results of a historical scenario analysis (1995-2020) for the benchmark portfolio and the risk parity portfolio are presented as Exhibit 2.题目图片Bergen reminds McKesson that the historical return of the Russell 1000 was 10.0% and that the risk-free interest rate averaged 2.5% over the 1995 to 2020 period. McKesson analyzes the results of the historical scenario analysis on a risk adjusted basis and draws the following conclusions:
Conclusion 1 The risk parity portfolios outperformed the benchmark portfolios across each scenario.Conclusion 2 The median performing portfolios were risk parity | low volatility and benchmark | expansion.Conclusion 3 The benchmark portfolios, compared to each other, outperformed during the non-recession period and the low volatility regime.McKesson suggests that approaches such as historical simulation and Monte Carlo simulation are complementary to backtesting. Simulation models involve an element of randomness. For historical simulation, the key variables are selected randomly without regard for time ordering. For Monte Carlo simulation, the key variables are selected randomly from an assigned distribution.Bergen states that bootstrapping is commonly used in backtesting, historical simulation and Monte Carlo simulation in order to accommodate the size of each method's data set.
41.
Which comment by Bergen about common mistakes in backtesting is most likely correct?
  • A.Comment 1
  • B.Comment 2
  • C.Comment 3

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Point-in-time data considers the complete data for any time period, enabling for the construction and backtesting of investment strategies based on the most complete set of information.
A is incorrect. Data snooping is a form of look-ahead bias in which an analyst selects data or performs analyses until a significant result is found. Including only those companies that have survived over the measurement period is survivorship bias. False positives are often the outcome of data snooping.
C is incorrect. Data revision is a form of look ahead bias, but it deals with revisions of data after the time that an investment decision would have been made. Specific examples include companies' earnings revisions and macro-economic data revisions.
42.
For the historical scenario analysis, which conclusion by McKesson is least likely correct?
  • A.Conclusion 1
  • B.Conclusion 2
  • C.Conclusion 3

参考答案C

解析C is correct. McKesson's conclusion for the low volatility regime is not correct. The Benchmark | Low volatility Sharpe ratio = .92; The Benchmark | High Volatility Sharpe ratio = 1.15. McKesson's conclusion for the Non Recession environment is correct. The Benchmark | Non Recession Sharpe ratio = 1.16; The Benchmark | Recession Sharpe ratio = .33.
A is incorrect. McKesson's conclusion is correct. The risk parity portfolios outperformed the benchmark portfolios across each scenario based on the Sharpe ratio. The Sharpe ratio = (return - risk free rate) / standard deviation. The ranking of the scenarios based on Sharpe ratios are (1) Risk Parity | Recession = (6.0 - 2.5) / 1.5 = 2.33; (2) Risk Parity | High Volatility = 1.90; (3) Risk Parity | Non Recession = 1.89; (4) Risk Parity | Low Volatility = 1.83; (5) Benchmark | Non Recession = 1.17; (6) Benchmark | High Volatility = 1.15; (7) Benchmark | Low Volatility = 0.92; (8) Benchmark Recession = .33
B is incorrect. McKession's conclusion is correct. The median portfolios consist of (4) Risk Parity | Low Volatility (1.83 Sharpe ratio) and (5) Benchmark | Non Recession (Sharpe ratio 1.17)
43.
Is McKesson's discussion of simulation models likely correct?
  • A.Yes
  • B.No, because of time ordering
  • C.No, because of assigned distribution

参考答案A

解析A is correct. McKesson's discussion of the key variables for historical simulation and Monte Carlo simulation are each correct.
B is incorrect. McKesson's statement that key variables are selected randomly without regard for time ordering for historical simulation is correct.
C is incorrect. McKesson's statement that key variables are selected randomly from an assigned distribution for Monte Carlo simulation is correct.
44.
Bergen's statement about bootstrapping is most likely correct with respect to:
  • A.backtesting.
  • B.historical simulation.
  • C.Monte Carlo simulation.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Bergen's statement about bootstrapping being used for historical simulation is correct. Random sampling with replacement, known as bootstrapping, is often used in investment research whenever the number of samples needed is larger than the data set. The data set consists of historical variables.
A is incorrect. Backtesting is based on historic data that follows each period chronologically. Random sampling with replacement, known as bootstrapping, is often used in investment research whenever the number of samples needed is larger than the data set
C is incorrect. Monte Carlo simulation does not utilize historical data. Rather, Monte Carlo simulation randomly samples from an assumed multivariate joint probability distribution such as a normal distribution in a manner that the past record of data is used to calibrate the parameters of the multivariate distribution. Accordingly, a Monte Carlo simulation is used to independently verify the results from a rolling-window backtesting.
Jacob Kostecka, CFA, is a portfolio manager at Forkson Investment Management, an asset management and research focused organization. After obtaining his CFA charter last month, Kostecka was transferred to the private wealth management division at Forkson.Dharshi Bope, a private wealth client, was involved in a major motorcycle accident and is in critical condition, fighting for his life. Bope is a single parent with a daughter, Paveen Nathoo, in her mid-twenties. Since the accident, Nathoo has managed her father’s affairs, paying all expenses, including investment advisory fees. In several conversations with Nathoo, Kostecka highlighted Bope’s low risk tolerance and investment goal of capital preservation. Nathoo has indicated her interest in managing the account more aggressively and possibly moving to another management firm. Nathoo recently petitioned the court to appoint her full power of attorney to legally manage Bope’s affairs. Prior to the court decision, Nathoo asks Kostecka to invest her father’s account in the initial public offering (IPO) of Chatterbox, a highly sought after social media company that has yet to generate a profit.The following week, the court approves Nathoo’s request to act on behalf of her father. Going through records in her father’s home, Nathoo discovers documents showing Bope embezzled several million dollars from his employer, a real estate development company. Most of these funds were placed directly into Bope’s personal account, for which Nathoo is now responsible. Nathoo informs Kostecka about her discovery; however, Kostecka does not act on this information, however, because it is a large account for Forkson.Nathoo establishes a non-discretionary investment account at Forkson tied to her newly established business. Shortly thereafter, Kostecka joins the board of Jabbertalk.com, a smaller social media competitor to Chatterbox. Based on his knowledge of Chatterbox, Kostecka believes the stock of Jabbertalk is a good investment, even though it is not yet profitable. Buoyed by his faith in social media, Kostecka ultimately purchases shares of Jabbertalk’s IPO for Nathoo’s account, as well as for all clients he currently manages. When Kostecka informs Nathoo of the purchase, she expresses concern about her legal responsibilities and lack of accounting knowledge in overseeing the account. Kostecka provides Nathoo a list of recommended professionals he has worked with in the past, including attorneys and accountants. When he was in college 10 years earlier, Kostecka was engaged to one of the attorneys but broke off the relationship prior to their wedding, and one of the accountants was Kostecka’s college roommate. Since then, Kostecka has not had any contact with the lawyer and accountant.The Jabbertalk investment is profitable on the first day of trading, doubling from its opening price. Kostecka tells his clients the multifactor valuation model used by Forkson shows Jabbertalk stock is still undervalued. Forkson’s research report, due out the next day, will recommend investors hold their Jabbertalk shares. However, Kostecka tells all his clients simultaneously they should sell their shares because he believes Jabbertalk is overvalued and the stock price will fall soon. Kostecka notes he has followed through on this belief by selling his personal holdings of Jabbertalk shares. Nathoo ignores Kostecka’s recommendation to sell Jabbertalk. Over the next week, the stock declines 75%.Watching Jabbertalk’s severe share price decline, Nathoo becomes furious with Kostecka because he did not sell shares of Jabbertalk in her account. She files a complaint with Kostecka’s supervisor, Sally Fang, CFA, claiming she was misled on the value of the IPO in the days immediately after the stock started trading. Kostecka responds to the complaint by telling Fang, “the analyst who wrote the hold recommendation on Jabbertalk has only passed his CFA Level II examination. As a charterholder, I have earned the right to use the CFA designation, so I am more qualified to manage clients’ investments.”In order to build his client base, Kostecka prepares performance information to show prospective clients. He includes the firm’s composite performance based on similar discretionary client portfolios that are in compliance with the GIPS Standards. In addition, Kostecka prepares his own composite performance, including all accounts he manages. This presentation includes Nathoo’s account assuming she had sold her shares of Jabbertalk. Along with his performance record, Kostecka provides a footnote disclosing the following language: “If your account is managed on a discretionary basis, you might expect results similar to those shown above.”
45.
With regard to the investment request made by Nathoo to invest in Chatterbox, Kostecka should most likely:
  • A.follow Bope’s investment goals.
  • B.seek advice from the court.
  • C.comply with her request.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. The account should be managed according to the client’s investment goal of capital preservation and a low risk tolerance. Under Standard III(A) –Loyalty, Prudence, and Care, the first step for members and candidates in fulfilling their duty of loyalty to clients is to determine the identity of the “client” to whom the duty of loyalty is owed. Only when the daughter is granted legal responsibility over her father’s affairs by the court does she become the client.
B is incorrect because the account should still be managed as the client requested since the daughter has not yet been granted legal responsibility over her father’s affairs by the court. An investment in an IPO of an unprofitable social networking company most likely does not meet the father’s investment goal.
C is incorrect because the account should still be managed as the client requested, an investment goal of capital preservation and a low risk tolerance. An investment in an IPO of an unprofitable social networking company most likely does not meet Bope’s investment goal. Since the daughter has not yet been granted legal responsibility over her father’s affairs by the court, the adviser is not required to follow through on this request.
46.
By not acting on the information reported by Nathoo, which CFA Institute Standard of Professional Conduct has Kostecka least likely violated?
  • A.Loyalty, Prudence, and Care
  • B.Duties to Employers
  • C.Knowledge of the Law

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Kostecka has not violated Standard III(A)–Loyalty, Prudence, and Care because he has put his client’s interests first. However, by not dissociating himself from the illegally embezzled funds, Kostecka has violated Standard I(A)–Knowledge of the Law. By managing these funds, Kostecka benefits directly via management fees and could be associating himself with suspicious financial transactions and potentially violating anti-money-laundering regulations. In addition, by not dissociating himself from the embezzled funds, Kostecka has also placed his firm in a position where it may suffer reputational harm, so he has also violated Standard IV(A)–Duties to Employers (Loyalty).
B is incorrect. Kostecka has violated Standard IV(A)–Loyalty, which requires that, in matters related to their employment, members and candidates must act for the benefit of their employer and not deprive their employer of the advantage of their skills and abilities, divulge confidential information, or otherwise cause harm to their employer. By not dissociating himself from the embezzled funds, Kostecka has placed his firm in a position where they may suffer reputational harm.
C is incorrect. Kostecka has violated Standard IV(A)–Loyalty, which requires that, in matters related to their employment, members and candidates must act for the benefit of their employer and not deprive their employer of the advantage of their skills and abilities, divulge confidential information, or otherwise cause harm to their employer. By not dissociating himself from the embezzled funds, Kostecka has placed his firm in a position where they may suffer reputational harm.
47.
With regard to investing in Jabbertalk and recommending experts, Kostecka most likely needs to disclose conflicts related to his:
  • A.attorney relationship.
  • B.board membership.
  • C.accountant relationship.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Kostecka’s board service creates the opportunity to receive material nonpublic information involving Jabbertalk and is a basic conflict of interest. As a result, according to Standard VI(A)–Conflicts of Interest, the directorship should be disclosed. Members and candidates must make full and fair disclosure of all matters that could reasonably be expected to impair their independence and objectivity or interfere with respective duties to their clients, prospective clients, and their employer. Because the member has not made any disclosure concerning his board membership, he is in violation of Standard VI(A).
Kostecka has also ignored his clients mandate of low risk tolerance and capital preservation and is in violation of Standard III(C)–Suitability. In addition, Nathoo has violated her fiduciary duty as a “trustee” of the account as she failed to manage her father’s portfolio in accordance with his wishes.
A is incorrect because even though Kostecka was previously engaged to one of the attorneys, the relationship ended a decade ago and it is unlikely that this relationship poses a potential conflict of interest at this time.
C is incorrect because even though one of the accountants Kostecka recommended is his college roommate, this is only one of several individuals he recommended and it is not a basic conflict of interest, which needs to be disclosed.
48.
In relation to Kostecka’s handling of the Jabbertalk stock recommendation, which of the following CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct did he least likely violate?
  • A.Priority of Transactions
  • B.Fair Dealing
  • C.Communication with Clients

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Standard III(B)–Fair Dealing requires members and candidates to deal fairly and objectively with all clients when providing investment analysis, making investment recommendations, taking investment action, or engaging in other professional activities. When Kostecka informs clients of the upcoming investment recommendation by Forkson, he has treated all clients fairly because this disclosure is provided to all of his current clients.
A is incorrect because Kostecka has violated Standard VI(B)–Priority of Transactions. There is a potential conflict of interest because the client and the adviser hold the same stock, so the client should be given first priority to trade Jabbertalk.
C is incorrect because according to Standard V(B)–Communication with Clients and Prospective Clients, Kostecka should have distinguished fact from opinion. In addition, Kostecka should also disclose to clients and prospective clients the basic format and general principles of the investment processes used to analyze investments, select securities, and construct portfolios and must promptly disclose any changes that might materially affect those processes and use reasonable judgment in identifying which factors are important to his investment analyses, recommendations, or actions and include those factors in communications with clients and prospective clients.
49.
When Kostecka defends himself against Nathoo’s complaint, he most likely violated the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct concerning the:
  • A.reference to candidacy in the CFA Program.
  • B.misrepresentation of the meaning of the designation.
  • C.right to use the CFA designation.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Statements overstating the competency of an individual or imply, either directly or indirectly, that superior performance can be expected from someone with the CFA designation are not allowed under Standard VII(B)–Reference to CFA Institute, the CFA Designation, and the CFA Program. The Standard specifically states that when referring to CFA Institute, CFA Institute membership, the CFA designation, or candidacy in the CFA Program, members and candidates must not misrepresent or exaggerate the meaning or implications of membership in the CFA Institute, holding the CFA designation, or candidacy in the CFA Program.
A is incorrect because he properly references his colleague as a Level II candidate.
C is incorrect because there is no indication that Kostecka does not have the right to use the CFA designation especially since he recently received his charter.
50.
Kostecka’s performance presentation most likely conforms to CFA Institute Standard III(D)–Performance Presentation with regard to:
  • A.disclosure in the footnote.
  • B.composites representing similar discretionary investment portfolios.
  • C.fair and accurate representation of performance.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Kostecka’s performance presentation of his firm’s composite performance is in compliance with Standard III(D)–Performance Presentation.
A is incorrect. Kostecka’s disclosure in the footnote is not in compliance with Standard III(D).
C is incorrect. Kostecka’s performance presentation of the accounts he manages is in not compliance with Standard III(D).
Fariq Gupta is an analyst at an investment bank’s foreign exchange trading desk. He meets with two of his clients to discuss their currency-related transactions.Bendigo TechnologiesBendigo Technologies is an Australia-based multinational company with subsidiaries in Tokyo and London. Bendigo will receive a cash inflow denominated in JPY from the Tokyo subsidiary and wants to convert this JPY receipt into Australian dollars (AUD). Gupta collects the spot rate bid/offer quotes for JPY/AUD (number of JPY per AUD) in Exhibit 1. Gupta investigates whether a triangular arbitrage opportunity exists between the Interbank and dealer quotes in the JPY/AUD.题目图片The Australian office expects a GBP cash inflow in six months from the London subsidiary. Gupta collects the AUD/GBP exchange rate and interest rate information in Exhibit 2 and assumes that covered interest rate parity holds.题目图片Mandurah wants to expand its investments into emerging markets and Gupta conducts further analysis. Country A is an emerging market, has a floating-rate currency regime and highly mobile foreign capital flows. The government is rapidly increasing its fiscal stimulus to boost economic growth. Gupta believes that this will lead to a prolonged buildup in public debt, which foreign creditors eventually will not accept. To ease concerns regarding the buildup in public debt, the central bank is implementing a restrictive monetary policy. He assesses the potential effect on the country’s currency based on the Mundell-Fleming and portfolio balance approaches.
The Mandurah FundThe Mandurah Fund is an investment fund based in Australia. One year ago, Mandurah entered a carry trade involving currency positions in Country D and Country E. Gupta calculates the all?in return from the carry trade using the information in Exhibit 3.题目图片Mandurah wants to expand its investments into emerging markets and Gupta conducts further analysis. Country A is an emerging market, has a floating-rate currency regime and highly mobile foreign capital flows. The government is rapidly increasing its fiscal stimulus to boost economic growth. Gupta believes that this will lead to a prolonged buildup in public debt, which foreign creditors eventually will not accept. To ease concerns regarding the buildup in public debt, the central bank is implementing a restrictive monetary policy. He assesses the potential effect on the country’s currency based on the Mundell-Fleming and portfolio balance approaches.
51.
Based on Exhibit 1, does a triangular arbitrage opportunity exist in JPY/AUD?
  • A.No.
  • B.Yes, by buying AUD in the interbank market and selling it to the dealer.
  • C.Yes, by buying AUD from the dealer and selling it in the interbank market.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. The implied cross-rate in the interbank market for AUD/JPY is 78.19/78.23. It is calculated as below.
JPY/AUD=JPY/USD×USD/AUD
bid=0.7633×102.44=78.19245
offer=0.7636×102.45=78.23082
The dealer’s JPY/AUD bid-offer rate is 78.18/78.22. The dealer’s bid rate is lower than the market implied bid rate and the offer rate is lower than the market implied offer rate, however the dealer’s offer rate is still within the implied spread. You can buy AUD from the dealer at cost of 78.22 JPY and sell the AUD to the interbank at 78.192 and have a loss. Similarly, you can buy AUD in the intermarket at cost of 78.23 and sell them to the dealer at 78.18 and have a loss. Also, if you sold AUD to the dealer you would receive JPY 78.18 which isn’t enough to pay the 78.23 in the interbank for AUD. If you sold AUD in the interbank you would receive JPY 78.192 and not have enough to buy AUD at 78.23. Hence there is no triangular arbitrage opportunity.
B is incorrect because the dealer’s JPY/AUD bid-offer rate is 78.18/78.22 which means the dealer is selling JPY at a price of 1/78.18 AUD or 0.012791 AUD/JPY. So if you bought JPY at a cost of 0.012791 AUD you would have to sell them at the interbank rate of 1/78.19245 AUD or 0.012789 AUD/JPY. So to buy JPY from the dealer, and sell it at the interbank market would result in a loss.
C is incorrect. There is no arbitrage opportunity because of the difference between the interbank implied cross-rate of 78.19/78.23 in JPY/AUD and the dealer quote of 78.18/78.22. Gupta could not make profit from buying AUD from the dealer at a cheaper rate and sell it at the interbank market for a higher rate. Gupta would need to buy JPY from the interbank market at 1/78.19 and only able to sell it to the dealer for a lower price of 1/78.22. The dealer’s offer rate is still within the market implied spread.
52.
Based on Exhibit 2, the 6-month forward rate for AUD/GBP should trade closest to a:
  • A.discount of 0.0120 to the spot rate.
  • B.premium of 0.0120 to the spot rate.
  • C.premium of 0.0140 to the spot rate.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. The equation to calculate the forward premium (discount) is:题目图片Because GBP is the base currency in the /AUD/GBP quote, putting in the information from the Exhibit leads to:题目图片The domestic currency will trade at a forward premium at 0.01199~=0.0120.
Note: the premium is .01183 if the 365 day convention is used.

53.
Based on Exhibit 3, the all-in return (in currency D terms) on Mandurah’s carry trade is closest to:
  • A.2.13%.
  • B.2.78%.
  • C.3.35%.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. The return on a carry trade is based on (a) the money market yield on the currency that the carry trade is legging into; (b) the appreciation of the currency that the carry trade is legging into, measured against the funding currency; and (c) the borrowing costs in the funding currency, which are charged against the gains from (b) and (c).
In a carry trade the investor borrows in the funding currency and invests in the high yielding currency. In this case, Currency D is the funding currency and currency E is the investment currency, and all-in returns are measured in currency D. (See especially Q5 of Example 8, page 542.) An increase in this rate indicates an appreciation of currency D. Adding the information provided by the analyst leads to an expected all-in one year return of:
(1 + 0.04)(6.6710 / 6.7500) – (1 + 0.0065) = 0.0213 = 2.13%
B is incorrect because it incorrectly omits the borrowing cost in the funding currency (annual yield on currency D at inception) in the equation:
(1 + 0.04)(6.6710 / 6.7500) – 1= 0.0278 = 2.78%
C is incorrect because it simply (and incorrectly) subtracts annual yield on Currency D at inception from annual yield on currency E at inception:
4.0% - 0.65%= 3.35%
54.
Based on Gupta’s observations and the Mundell-Fleming and portfolio balance approaches, Country A’s currency would be expected to:
  • A.appreciate in the short term but depreciate in the long term.
  • B.depreciate in the short term towards a lower, long-term equilibrium exchange rate.
  • C.appreciate in the short term towards a higher, long-term equilibrium exchange rate.

参考答案A

解析A is correct because the Mundell-Fleming model is a short-term model while the portfolio balance channel looks at long-term fiscal effects. In the short term the Mundell-Fleming model indicates that a more expansionary fiscal policy should cause the currency to appreciate (given highly mobile capital conditions and a restrictive monetary policy). But over the longer term the portfolio balance channel would indicate that as foreign holdings of bonds issued by the balance of trade deficit country increase, these foreign bondholders may wish to reduce their portfolio weights in that country and sell its currency. (See page 661?662 esp. Exhibit 5, and pages 653-654.)
B is incorrect because in the shorter-term the currency is more likely to appreciate (Mundell-Fleming model) than depreciate.
C is incorrect because although there may be short-term currency appreciation, longer-term fiscal effects are likely to cause depreciation.
Marcus Eriksson, chief financial officer of Trana AB, and Katrina Lars, director of financial reporting, are preparing the company’s 2015 annual report. Today’s meeting is to discuss the transactions and disclosures related to Trana’s foreign operations. Trana, which reports under International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS), is a Sweden-based retailer operating stores in three geographic locations: Sweden, the eurozone (with a current presence only in France, Germany, and Italy), and the United States. The stores in the eurozone and the United States are operated through a wholly owned subsidiary in each region. Consistent with Swedish accounting practice, the annual report includes separate financial statements for the parent company (Trana) and consolidated, or group, financial statements. The income statements are presented in Exhibit 1.题目图片Eriksson and Lars start the meeting by reviewing some of the relevant currency exchange rates, shown in Exhibit 2. The functional currency for the eurozone and US subsidiaries is the local currency (EUR and USD, respectively), thus the financial statements of both are translated using the current rate method. Both subsidiaries are consistently profitable.题目图片Next, they review the performance and related disclosures by region. The number of stores operated in each region is shown in Exhibit 3.题目图片In preparation for the meeting, Lars looked at the US region and calculated the effect of the change in the SEK/USD exchange rate on the increase in sales from 2014 to 2015. Her notes include the following:
In 2014, the sales per store, in SEK, were the same for both US and Swedish stores.The sales per US store in USD remained constant in 2015.
Eriksson reminds Lars that Trana defines organic growth in retail as coming from two factors:1.increasing the number of stores, and2.increasing the sales per store in the local currency.He says that he wants to provide disclosures related to the organic growth rate in domestic sales per store, by region, and asks Lars to calculate it for the eurozone region where the sales figures (in millions) were SEK18,394 in 2014 and SEK21,640 in 2015.In 2012, at the start of Trana’s expansion into North American markets, the company established a subsidiary, Anart Inc., in a South American country to benefit from lower labor and shipping costs. The details of the Anart investment are as follows:
Anart is 80% owned by Trana with 20% local investment.It sells all of its production to Trana and Trana’s other subsidiaries and determines the transfer price as full cost plus 5%.In 2015, sales (in millions) from Anart to Trana companies were SEK4,485 with net profit of SEK204.The corporate tax rate in the country is 10%.
Throughout 2013, the South American country experienced high rates of inflation, approaching 30% per year. Trana had originally assumed that the high inflation rate was temporary, but it has shown no signs of decreasing and is now a concern. Eriksson and Lars discuss the impact of Anart on Trana’s financial statements and Eriksson asks Lars:“Is the same accounting method being used this year to account for Anart in the consolidated financial statements as in prior years?”Eriksson reminds Lars that there is a proposal in Sweden to reduce the corporate tax rate from the current 22% to 16.5%. He would like to provide pro-forma disclosures related to the potential change in net income this change could provide for Trana. He reminds Lars that the average tax rate for the eurozone countries where Trana operates is 30% and 25% in the United States. Sweden operates under a tax treaty with all countries in which it has subsidiaries, such that it will owe taxes on foreign earned income to the extent that the Swedish rate exceeds the foreign rate.In closing the meeting, Eriksson mentions that Trana is undertaking a comprehensive review of its operations in 2016, and its objectives include reducing overall tax costs by lowering its effective tax rate and reducing foreign exchange gains and losses reported on the income statement.
55.
Using Exhibits 1, 2, and 3 and Lars’s notes about the US operations, the change in sales reported for the US region (in SEK millions) explained by the change in the SEK/USD exchange rate in 2015 is closest to:
  • A.SEK737.
  • B.SEK813.
  • C.SEK1,432.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. The number of stores in the United States is the same in 2014 and 2015 (80). The average sales per US store in 2014 is the same as the Swedish stores, and the USD sales are the same in both years. But when sales are converted into SEK, the values reflect the change in the exchange rate over the period.
题目图片
56.
Using Eriksson’s definition, the organic growth rate in sales per store in the eurozone region between 2014 and 2015 that Lars calculates is closest to:
  • A.0%.
  • B.–6.2%.
  • C.10.3%

参考答案B

解析B is correct. To reflect the growth in domestic sales per store, it is necessary to eliminate the foreign exchange effect.
题目图片
57.
The best estimate of the proportion of Anart’s sales that is reflected in Trana’s consolidated income statement is:
  • A.0%.
  • B.100%.
  • C.80%.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Trana owns 80% of Anart. Because this is a controlling interest, Trana would consolidate Anart into the group financial statements. Even though Trana owns only 80%, consolidation requires the inclusion of 100% of the subsidiary’s assets, liabilities, revenues, and expenses (excepting intercompany sales, which are eliminated on consolidation to prevent double counting). Therefore, because Anart sells all of its production to Trana and Trana’s other subsidiaries, none of Anart’s sales would be included in the consolidated income statement.
B is incorrect. Even though Trana only owns 80%, consolidation requires 100% inclusion of the subsidiary’s assets, liabilities, revenues, and expenses. Intercompany sales (here 100%), however, must be eliminated
C is incorrect. Even though Trana only owns 80%, consolidation requires 100% inclusion of the subsidiary’s assets, liabilities, revenues, and expenses. Intercompany sales (here 100%), however, must be eliminated.
58.
Which of the following is Lars’s most appropriate answer to Eriksson’s question concerning the accounting method used for Anart in 2015?
  • A.No, the current rate method is being used, after restating nonmonetary items for inflation.
  • B.No, the current rate method is being used, after restating all accounts for the general price index.
  • C.Yes, the temporal method is being used, as in past years.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Because Anart is an extension of Trana (Anart sells 100% of its production to the group) its functional currency would be the Swedish krona, not the local currency, and it would be considered an integrated foreign operation. As an integrated foreign operation, Trana would normally, and historically, have accounted for Anart using the temporal method. But the country in which Anart operates is experiencing high inflation; three years (2013–2015) of rates near 30% would exceed the 100% indicator of hyperinflation. Therefore, under IFRS, the nonmonetary items must be adjusted for the loss in purchasing power to better reflect economic reality. Note that only the nonmonetary items are adjusted because monetary ones would already be expressed in the monetary unit current at the balance sheet date.
B is incorrect. Only nonmonetary items are affected by the loss of purchasing power and must be restated.
C is incorrect. Now that the high inflation has lasted at least three years it can be considered hyperinflation, and different translation methods must be used to reflect economic reality.
59.
If the proposed reduction in Swedish tax rates had been in effect in 2015, the increase in Trana’s net profit (in SEK millions) would have been closest to:
  • A.SEK31.2.
  • B.SEK18.6.
  • C.SEK29.8.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. The proposed change in Swedish tax rates would have affected the income earned in Sweden (SEK338 before tax) and the pre-tax income earned in the South American subsidiary (SEK227, see calculation in following table) because the tax rate there is lower than in Sweden and hence subject to tax at Swedish rates. The income earned in tax jurisdictions with rates higher than Sweden’s (Europe and the United States) are not subject to tax in Sweden and thus would not have been affected.
题目图片
60.
Which of the following strategies would be most likely to help Trana achieve at least one of the objectives mentioned by Eriksson for 2016?
  • A.Raise the price at which Anart sells its goods to other group members
  • B.Increase the number of stores in the US region
  • C.Initiate a hedge on the net asset position of the eurozone subsidiary

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Anart operates in a South American country with the lowest tax rate of the group—10% versus 25% in the United States, 30% in the eurozone, and 22% (or 16.5%) in Sweden. If more of the corporate profits are earned by Anart, the effective tax rate will decrease.
Anart currently earns a return of 204/4,485 = 4.5%, whereas the overall corporate profit rate is 10.3% (3,096/30,200).
Any income taxed in South America would be eligible for a tax credit in Sweden, and Trana would be liable for the tax difference between the local 10% rate and the rate in Sweden (22% or 16.5%).
To the extent that taxable income can be diverted from the US or eurozone operations (where the rates are higher than Sweden’s), it would result in an overall tax saving for Trana.
By increasing the price at which Anart sells goods to the US and eurozone subsidiaries, it would increase the taxable income earned in South America and reduce the taxable income (through higher cost of goods sold) in the United States and the eurozone. Because of the tax treaty with Sweden, there would be no net tax savings on the goods sold to US and eurozone stores by Anart if the prices change.
Because both retail subsidiaries are translated using the current rate method, all foreign exchange gains/losses are reported in other comprehensive income not on the income statement. Therefore, the effects of hedging the exposure in the eurozone subsidiary would also be reported in other comprehensive income and not affect the income statement.
Increasing the number of stores in the US would increase the amount of income in the highest tax jurisdiction and hence increase taxes, not lower them.
B is incorrect. Increasing the number of stores in the US region will not affect the tax rate, but would increase taxable income because the tax rate there is greater than in Sweden and would not affect foreign exchange gains and losses on the income statement because it is self-sustaining, and the gains and losses go to other comprehensive income.
C is incorrect. The eurozone subsidiary is also self-sustaining, and any effect of hedging its net asset position would go to other comprehensive income, not net incoe. The eurozone’s taxes are higher than in Sweden, so there would be no lowering of taxes either.
Andrew Bubs is the founder and owner/operator of privately held Bubs Candies Company (BCC). BCC produces all of its candy and sells directly to retailers. The candy market is dominated by one large publicly traded firm, Tressell Candies, which controls 30% of the market. Two other publicly traded competitors (Claire’s Confections and Cindy’s Sweets) each control 11% of the market, with the rest of the market evenly divided among eight other firms (BCC being one of them).In late 2020, Bubs hires James Nelson of Nelson Partners to assist with reviewing issues related to potential changes in industry structure.Nelson and Bubs discuss attributes of the publicly traded firms in the industry:
Tressell Candies outsources production of its different candies and focuses most of its energy on its retail operations. In fact, some of BCC’s products are brought to market using Tressell’s retail facilities.
Claire’s Confections is like BCC in that it produces candy but does not have its own retail outlets.
Cindy’s Sweets produces and markets its candy through its own retail stores.
Bubs and Nelson consider the implication of BCC being acquired by either Tressell Candies or Claire’s Confections. They classify each potential acquisition as:
a vertical merger with backward integration if acquired by Tressell Candies; or
a horizontal merger with potential economies of scale if acquired by Claire’s Confections.
Upon considering further information about the publicly traded companies (see Exhibit 1), Nelson observes that Tressell can potentially increase its earnings per share by acquiring either Claire’s Confections or Cindy’s Sweets in an all-stock acquisition (assuming no changes in the current stock prices). Upon hearing this information from Nelson, Bubs decides to contact Tressell to discuss the potential sale of BCC before Tressell can act on acquiring Claire’s Confections or Cindy’s Sweets.题目图片Later, after further investigation, Bubs and Nelson discover a provision that in the event of a takeover, the bondholders of Cindy’s Sweets can immediately sell bonds back to the issuing company at a value of 20% above par, making Cindy’s Sweets an unlikely target for Tressell.
Nelson learns that the Tressell board of directors is considering making a cash and stock offer for Claire’s Confections. One of the directors made the following comments:
1. Although I am certainly in favor of this takeover, I think greatest value will be achieved from the acquisition for both firms if we offer more stock and less cash.
2. If Claire’s Confections does not realize the potential synergies of this acquisition in the next five years, I suggest a spinoff as a means of recovering some of the money lost in this venture.
3. A positive initial market reaction will confirm that we did not overpay for Claire’s Confections.
61.
Bubs and Nelson’s classifications of the two mergers in which BCC might be acquired are most accurate with respect to:
  • A.Tressell Candies only.
  • B.Claire’s Confections only.
  • C.both Tressell Candies and Claire’s Confections.

参考答案C

解析C is correct. An acquisition by Tressell would be a vertical merger (both companies are in the same production chain) with backward integration, because BCC would give Tressell production facilities (i.e., BCC is ahead of Tressell in the value chain as a supplier). An acquisition by Claire’s Confections would be a horizontal merger, because both companies do the same thing (candy production without retail outlets). In a horizontal merger, economies of scale are possible.
A is incorrect because an acquisition by Tressell Candies would be properly classified as a vertical merger with backward integration.
B is incorrect because an acquisition by Claire’s Confections would be properly classified as a horizontal merger with potential economies of scale.
62.
Nelson’s observation that Tressell Candies will be able to increase its EPS by executing an all-stock acquisition is best characterized as correct:
  • A.for both Cindy’s Sweets and Claire’s Confections.
  • B.only when considering Cindy’s Sweets.
  • C.only when considering Claire’s Confections.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Tressell’s pre-acquisition EPS is $1.114. This figure would increase to $1.20 with the acquisition of Cindy’s Sweets, but it would decrease to $1.10 with the acquisition of Claire’s Confections.
Calculations of potential post-acquisition EPS for Tressell are as follows:
题目图片
Because of the bootstrapping effect, an acquiring firm’s EPS will increase when the pre-acquisition P/E of the acquirer is higher than the pre-acquisition P/E of the target firm. Tressell currently has a higher P/E than Cindy’s Sweets (20.20 versus 13.79) but a lower P/E than Claire’s Confections (21.50). Consequently, Tressell’s EPS would rise with the acquisition of Cindy’s Sweets but would fall with the acquisition of Claire’s Confections based on the bootstrapping effect.

63.
The provision related to the bonds of Cindy’s Sweets that Bubs and Nelson discover is most accurately described as a:
  • A.flip-in pill.
  • B.poison put.
  • C.“Pac-Man” defense.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Allowing the bondholders of the target firm to “put” bonds back to the target company at a price above par is consistent with a poison put.
A is incorrect because a flip-in pill does not require actions by bondholders.
C is incorrect because a “Pac-Man” defense does not require actions by bondholders.
64.
Which of the following comments made by the member of Tressell’s board of directors is most accurate?
  • A.Comment 1
  • B.Comment 2
  • C.Comment 3

参考答案C

解析C is correct. Initial market reaction is an important barometer for the value investors place on the gains from merging as well as an indication of future returns.
A is incorrect. The more of the merger that is paid for by stock, the more that the risks and benefits of realizing these synergies (assuming they really exist) will be passed on to the target shareholders. Hence, a lower benefit will result if more stock is used.
B is incorrect. A spin-off does not generate cash for the parent company.
The Stratton Club is a US-based small investment club formed by a group of friends who had recently graduated from university. Today the club holds a regular bimonthly meeting, and two members have new companies for the club to analyze. The club uses a combination of comparables and forecasted fundamentals to make its investment decisions.Alice Zhang has done some preliminary research on Cratt Ltd. (Cratt). Located in Pennsylvania, Cratt is a small manufacturer of products, supplies, and food for domestic animals. Zhang starts by showing the club a recent news release from Cratt’s website (Exhibit 1).题目图片Zhang notes that Cratt is currently trading at $11.31 and reminds the club that the company had been sued over patent infringement for producing coats and blankets for dogs with the names and logos of local professional sports teams on them without the teams’ permission. The company had settled quickly out of court to avoid further negative publicity. Zhang believes the company will not be incurring legal fees again in the foreseeable future but believes that because the company’s strategy is to grow by acquisition, costs related to acquisitions will continue to be incurred and are relevant in any analysis. She does not agree with the company’s exclusion of those costs from core EPS. She calculates Cratt’s trailing price-to-earnings ratio (P/E) on the basis of her beliefs.
Using data available from the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE), Zhang finds the average P/E multiple for the Consumer Goods Index (14.8) and the Processed and Packaged Goods sector of that index (32.9). She then performs a screen to narrow the latter group down to other, smaller processed and packaged goods producers to create her own index for comparison purposes. Partial results for the companies identified in her screen are shown in Exhibit 2.题目图片Zhang observes that Lane Foods must have both a higher-than-average growth rate and risk to justify its high P/E and that perhaps they should consider looking at Lane as a potential investment at their next meeting.The club members further discuss Zhang’s index and the wide range in both market capitalizations and P/Es for companies in the index. The discussion focuses on whether the arithmetic mean of the index is the best value to be using in their analysis. Zhang remembers learning about the weighted harmonic mean. She decides to calculate the weighted harmonic mean for the index and makes the following statement to support her decision:“The harmonic mean can be used to mitigate the effects of both large and small outliers.”Moving on from Cratt, Tom Kaminski, another group member, presents some preliminary research on Rapier Ltd., an integrated producer in the forest products industry. Kaminski explains that the industry is cyclical and is currently at mid-cycle. He notes that over this portion of the current cycle, Rapier has shown steady growth in total assets. Kaminski realizes he needs to take these factors into consideration when calculating normalized EPS to determine Rapier’s P/E.The meeting continues with Kaminski providing some follow-up from the club’s last meeting:“I have more information on KPK Inc., which we discussed in our last meeting. You may recall that we settled on a discounted cash flow model that we considered appropriate for the stock. I have used it to calculate the justified fundamental P/E. In addition, along with current and forecasted EPS for the next four quarters, I have determined other P/Es for the stock (Exhibit 3). Because the stock is part of the NYSE Consumer Goods Index that Zhang mentioned earlier, I have also included the index P/E. Based on this analysis, I recommend that the club buy KPK shares.”题目图片
65.
Based on Exhibit 1 and Zhang’s beliefs about recurring costs, her trailing P/E is closest to:
  • A.10.98.
  • B.10.01.
  • C.8.64.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Zhang believes that the acquisition costs will continue to be incurred and, therefore, should not be excluded from Cratt’s core EPS; however, the legal costs are non-recurring and should be excluded.
Using that definition, recurring EPS in 2017 = $1.03 + 0.10 = $1.13. Trailing P/E = $11.31 ÷ $1.13 = 10.01.
A is incorrect. It uses the GAAP (reported) EPS: P/E = $11.31 ÷ 1.03 = $10.98. But that includes the legal fees, which Zhang believes will not recur and should not be included.
C is incorrect because it uses core EPS as reported by Cratt: P/E = $11.31 ÷ 1.31 = $8.64, which excludes the acquisition costs.
66.
Zhang’s observation about Lane Foods’ high P/E is best described as:
  • A.correct.
  • B.incorrect with respect to the growth rate.
  • C.incorrect with respect to the risk.

参考答案C

解析C is correct. The observation about Lane’s P/E is incorrect with respect to risk. Companies with higher-than-average risk (operating or financial) have lower P/Es, not higher ones. She is correct with respect to the growth rate. Companies with higher-than-average growth rates have higher P/Es.
A is incorrect. The observation is incorrect with respect to the risk. Companies with higher-than-average risk (operating or financial) have lower P/Es, not higher ones. She is correct with respect to the growth rate. Companies with higher-than-average growth rates have higher P/Es.
B is incorrect. She is correct with respect to the growth rate. Companies with higher-than-average growth rates have higher P/Es.
67.
The weighted harmonic mean of the P/Es in Zhang’s index (Exhibit 2) is closest to:
  • A.11.1.
  • B.10.8.
  • C.15.4

参考答案B

解析B is correct. The weighted harmonic mean is the value obtained by calculating the weighted average (based on market capitalization weights) of the reciprocals of the observations (the P/E) and then taking the reciprocal of the average. The weighted harmonic mean for Zhang’s index in Exhibit 2 is calculated as follows:
题目图片
68.
Zhang’s statement to support using the harmonic mean is best described as:
  • A.incorrect with respect to large outliers.
  • B.incorrect with respect to small outliners.
  • C.correct.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Zhang’s statement is incorrect with respect to small outliers. The harmonic mean tends to mitigate the impact of large outliers. It may aggravate the impact of small outliers, but such outliers are bounded by zero on the downside.
A is incorrect. The harmonic mean may aggravate the impact of small outliers, but such outliers are bounded by zero on the downside.
C is incorrect. The harmonic mean may aggravate the impact of small outliers, but such outliers are bounded by zero on the downside.
69.
When determining Rapier’s P/E, the most appropriate method for Kaminski to use to calculate the company’s normalized EPS is the:
  • A.average ROE over the most recent full cycle times the current book value per share.
  • B.current EPS because Rapier is mid-cycle.
  • C.average EPS over the most recent full cycle.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. The average ROE over the most recent full cycle times the current book value is the most appropriate method to use to calculate normalized EPS in cyclical industries when there have been changes in the company’s size, as is the case for Rapier and its asset growth.
B is incorrect. Even though the company is mid-cycle, the current EPS may not be the same as the average or normalized EPS over the cycle.
C is incorrect. Averaging the EPS over the cycle is one way to calculate normalized EPS in a cyclical industry but does not account for changes in the business’s size.
70.
Which of the following best supports Kaminski’s recommendation for KPK? The justified (fundamental) P/E is greater than the:
  • A.trailing P/E.
  • B.forward P/E.
  • C.index P/E.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Kaminski recommends that the club invest in KPK. That would be appropriate if the company is currently undervalued. He has forecasted a share price based on fundamentals (DCF) and has forecasted EPS. Therefore, the club can calculate a justified (fundamental) P/E based on those inputs and compare it with the other P/E values to determine the attractiveness of the stock. The justified (fundamental) P/E would be a better metric to base the decision on than one of the other P/Es because it is supported by company fundamentals. From Exhibit 3, the justified (fundamental) P/E is greater than the trailing P/E. Therefore, KPK is currently undervalued by (15.0 – 14.6) ÷ 14.6 = 2.7%, and the club should invest.
B is incorrect. The forward P/E is not the most reliable P/E, because it is not based on company fundamentals.
C is incorrect. The index is a general comparable and does not represent the value of the company as well as the justified P/E. Therefore, it not as reliable a buy signal.
Diane Muniz is the fixed-income trading strategist at Greentown Capital Management, an investment firm based in Miami, Florida. Muniz is running a training session for three recently hired junior analysts, Amanda Morgan, David Scahill, and Hamza Gomaa.Muniz welcomes Morgan, Scahill, and Gomaa to the firm and states that at today’s session they will be discussing bonds with embedded options. She asks the group, “Can any of you list a few general characteristics of bonds with embedded options?” Morgan responds with the following statements:Statement 1 “Depending on the type of bond, the embedded option can be exercised by either the bondholder or the bond issuer to exploit interest rate movements.”Statement 2 “However, both types of options—bondholder and bond issuer options—cannot be embedded in the same bond.”Statement 3 “The embedded options cannot be traded independently of the bond.”Muniz moves on to a discussion of the valuation of risky bonds with embedded options and asks if there is a metric that can be used to determine relative value and how such a measure is calculated. In response Scahill states: “The option-adjusted spread, or OAS, can be used to determine the value of a risky bond with embedded options. When assessing relative value for two bonds that are otherwise similar in all respects, the bond with the lower OAS is most likely underpriced or cheap.” Morgan adds: “The OAS is a variable spread that is based on the likelihood of cash flows occurring.” Gomaa disagrees with Scahill and Morgan, stating: “I believe OAS is the constant spread that when added to all one-period forward rates on the interest rate tree, equates the present value of the bond’s cash flows to the market price. Furthermore, for two bonds that have similar characteristics and credit quality, the bond with the higher OAS is underpriced.”Scahill then asks, “While we are on the topic of OAS, a question that comes to mind is how the interest rate volatility assumption impacts the OAS of callable and putable bonds.” Morgan responds, “It is my understanding that as interest rate volatility declines, the OAS for callable bonds decreases while the OAS for putable bonds increases.”In order to initiate discussion on the interest rate risk of bonds with embedded options, Muniz asks the group to use the information presented in Exhibit 1 to calculate the effective duration of a 5% annual coupon bond with 2 years remaining to maturity and callable in 1 year. The current price of this bond is $100.50, and the face value is $100.00.题目图片Muniz states that effective duration indicates the sensitivity of a bond’s price to interest rate changes and is a measure of interest rate risk. She notes: “When interest rates rise and are high relative to the bond’s coupon rate, the effective duration of a callable bond falls and is lower than the effective duration of an otherwise similar straight bond. On the other hand, for the same interest rate scenario, the effective duration of a putable bond will be similar to the effective duration of a comparable straight bond.”
Muniz wraps up the training session by posing the following question: “If you expect a steepening of the yield curve, what duration measure provides the best indication of the interest rate risk for a callable bond?” The group is asked to submit answers to Muniz the following day.
71.
Which of Morgan’s statements is least likely correct:
  • A.Statement 1
  • B.Statement 2
  • C.Statement 3

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Both bondholder options and issuer options can be embedded in the same bond. For example, convertible bonds contain a conversion option that allows the bondholder to convert bonds to the issuer’s common stock. At the same time, the convertible bond can have an embedded call option that allows the issuer to call the bond issue to take advantage of low interest rates or to force conversion.
A is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct.
C is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct.
72.
In response to Muniz’s question about the valuation of bonds with embedded options and relative value analysis, who is most likely correct?
  • A.Morgan
  • B.Gomaa
  • C.Scahill

参考答案B

解析B is correct, Gomaa is correct. The option-adjusted spread (OAS) is the constant spread that is added to all one-period forward rates on the interest rate tree and results in the present value of the bond’s cash flows, or arbitrage-free value, equaling the bond’s market price. Gomaa also correctly describes how to use OAS for relative valuation. For two bonds that have otherwise similar characteristics, the bond with the higher OAS is underpriced, or, alternatively, the bond with the lower OAS is overpriced.
A is incorrect. Morgan is incorrect. The OAS is the constant spread that is added to all one period forward rates on the interest rate tree (not the term structure) and results in the present value of the bond’s cash flows, or arbitrage free value, equaling the bonds market price.
C is incorrect. Scahill is incorrect. For two bonds that are otherwise similar in all respects, the bond with the lower OAS is most likely overpriced not underpriced.
73.
Is his response to Scahill’s question regarding the impact of changes in interest rate volatility on the OAS of callable and putable bonds, Morgan is most likely:
  • A.incorrect about callable and putable bonds.
  • B.correct about callable bonds and incorrect about putable bonds.
  • C.correct about putable bonds and incorrect about callable bonds.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Morgan’s response to Scahill is incorrect. As interest rate volatility declines, the embedded call option becomes cheaper; thus, the higher the arbitrage-free value (or model value) of the callable bond.
Callable bond value = Value of straight bond – Value of call option
A higher value for the callable bond means that a higher spread needs to be added to one-period forward rates to make the arbitrage-free bond value equal to the market price (i.e., the OAS is higher). For putable bonds as interest rate volatility declines, the value of the put option declines as does the arbitrage-free value of the putable bond.
Putable bond value = Value of straight bond + Value of put option
This implies that a lower spread needs to be added to one-period forward rates to make the arbitrage free bond value equal to the market price. Thus, in this instance, the OAS is lower.
B is incorrect. Morgan is correct about the impact on OAS for callable bonds.
C is incorrect. Morgan is correct about the impact on OAS for putable bonds.
74.
Based on the information presented in Exhibit 1, the effective duration of the 5% coupon bond is closest to:
  • A.3.18.
  • B.0.70.
  • C.1.59.

参考答案C

解析C is correct.
Effective Duration= [(PV-)-(PV+)]/2(ΔCurve)(PV0)= (100.64-100.32)/2(0.001)(100.5)
= 1.59

75.
Muniz’s comments regarding effective duration are most likely:
  • A.correct with regard to callable bonds and incorrect with regard to putable bonds.
  • B.incorrect with regard to callable and putable bonds.
  • C.incorrect with regard to callable bonds and correct with regard to putable bonds.

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Muniz’s comments on the effective duration of callable and putable bonds are incorrect. For callable bonds, when interest rates rise and are high compared to the bond’s coupon rate, the call option is out of the money and the price of the callable bond and an otherwise identical straight bond are almost the same. Thus, the effect of an interest rate change on the price of a callable bond and the straight bond is similar—that is, the effective duration of the callable and straight bonds is similar. For putable bonds, when interest rates rise and are high compared to the bond’s coupon rate, the put option is in the money and the price of the putable bond will not fall as much as the straight bond because the investor can put the bond. Thus, the effective duration of the putable bond is lower than the effective duration of the straight bond.
A is incorrect. Muniz’s comments on the effective duration of callable and putable bonds are incorrect.
C is incorrect. Muniz’s comments on the effective duration of callable and putable bonds are incorrect.
76.
For the interest rate scenario presented by Muniz, the most appropriate duration measure is:
  • A.key rate duration.
  • B.one-sided up duration.
  • C.effective duration.

参考答案A

解析A is correct. A bond’s sensitivity to changes in the shape of the yield curve, steepening or flattening, is captured by key rate duration. One-sided duration (up or down) is better than effective or two-sided duration at capturing the interest rate sensitivity of a callable or putable bond but only for a parallel shift in the yield curve, not for changes in the shape of the yield curve.
B is incorrect. A bond’s sensitivity to changes in the shape of the yield curve, steepening or flattening, is captured by key rate duration. One-sided duration (up or down) is better than effective or two-sided duration at capturing the interest rate sensitivity of a callable or putable bond but only for a parallel shift in the yield curve, not for changes in the shape of the yield curve.
C is incorrect. A bond’s sensitivity to changes in the shape of the yield curve, steepening or flattening, is captured by key rate duration. One-sided duration (up or down) is better than effective or two-sided duration at capturing the interest rate sensitivity of a callable or putable bond but only for a parallel shift in the yield curve, not for changes in the shape of the yield curve.
Laura Talbot is a portfolio manager at Rock Ledge Capital Advisors (RLCA), an investment firm based in Charlotte, North Carolina. Talbot is meeting with two assistant portfolio managers, Vinay Gupta and Zhong Geng, to review the performance of investments made by RLCA, to evaluate potential new investments and to review client requests for advice.
Talbot asks Gupta to assess potential mispricing in equity futures markets with a goal of implementing an investment strategy to take advantage of any mispricing that may exist. Specifically, she asks him to evaluate a futures contract on the S&P 400 Mid-Cap stock index expiring in 145 days. The annual risk-free rate is 1.2% and the index price level is 1,935 today. The accumulated value of dividends reinvested over the life of the futures contract is $3.15 per contract.
One month (30 days) ago, RLCA entered into a long forward contract on the S&P 500 stock index expiring in 60 days. Talbot has asked Zhong to calculate the value of the forward position today — that is, 30 days after the contract was initiated. Zhong has collected the information in Exhibit 1 to carry out the valuation assignment.题目图片A client of RCLA currently has a $250,000,000 one-year loan that carries a 5.15% fixed interest rate. Talbot feels the current interest rate on the loan is high relative to current market rates and that rates will decline further. She recommends that RCLA’s client enter into a one-year pay floating LIBOR receiving fixed-interest rate swap with quarterly payments (30/360 day count convention). The notional amount of the swap is $250,000,000. The current LIBOR term structure and the corresponding present value factors are provided in Exhibit 2.题目图片One year ago, RCLA entered into the four-year pay floating LIBOR receiving fixed-interest rate swap with annual resets, 30/360 day count, and a notional amount of $50,000,000. The fixed rate on the swap one year ago was 1.89%. Talbot wants to know the value of the swap today given the present value factors given in Exhibit 3.题目图片
77.
Assuming a 360-day year, the S&P 400 Mid-Cap stock index futures price is closest to?
  • A.1,932.
  • B.1,941.
  • C.1,947.

参考答案B

解析B is correct.
The futures price=FV0,T(S0-γ).
The S&P 400 Mid-Cap futures price is: 1,935 × (1.012 (145/360) ) – 3.15 = 1,941.17
A is incorrect. The futures price is incorrectly calculated as 1,935 – 3.15 = 1,931.85
C is incorrect. The futures price is incorrectly calculated as 1,935 × (1.012 (145/360) ) + 3.15 = 1,947.46
78.
Based on the information in Exhibit 1 and assuming a 360-day year, the value of S&P 500 forward contract today is closest to:
  • A.49.64.
  • B.50.19.
  • C.51.81.

参考答案A

解析A is correct.
Vt(T) = PVt,T = [Ft (T ) – F0 (T )]
T = 60/360 = 0.1667
t = 30/360 = 0.0833
T – t = 0.1667 – 0.0833 = 0.0833
Ft(T)=Ste(rc-γ)T=3,450.82e(0.0119?0.0075)0.0833=3,452.086
Vt(T) = (3,452.086 – 3,402.49) e(0.0119) (0.0833) = 49.64
79.
Based on Exhibit 2, the annualized fixed rate of the interest rate swap is closest to:
  • A.1.10%.
  • B.0.80%.
  • C.1.68%.

参考答案C

解析C is correct. The present value factors are provided along with an explanation of how they are calculated:
题目图片
For example, PV(90) is calculated as follows:
题目图片Other present value factors are calculated in a similar manner.
The fixed swap rate is calculated as follows:题目图片The annualized rate = 0.0042 × 4 = 0.0168

80.
The market value of the pay fixed receive floating interest rate swap is closest to:
  • A.$221,220.
  • B.$79,271.
  • C.$647,145.

参考答案C

解析题目图片
Maneck Capital Management is an institutional investment adviser specializing in thinly traded equities of larger emerging market countries. Portfolio manager Gustav Soehnges is acquainting junior portfolio manager Tuhin Joshi with Maneck’s trading practices.
Soehnges explains, “The emerging markets where we invest generally have less liquidity than developed markets. We pay close attention to limiting sources of investment performance slippage of which trading costs can be a significant part.”
Soehnges outlines the following three practices that help manage transaction costs when buying and selling shares:
Practice I :Commissions are variable by broker and market, but we endeavor to control trading costs by limiting commissions to 10 basis points of the transaction.
Practice II :We do not employ our own traders. A team within our compliance department monitors and approves brokers who may be utilized. Portfolio managers submit their orders directly to one of the approved brokers.
Practice III :Brokers’ trade executions are continuously evaluated by calculating the difference between each trade price and the prevailing midquote price, as well as by the difference between each trade price and the average price received by other traders at the time we are trading.
Soehnges also states: “We seek to have a simple process to evaluate trade costs even though I realize some costs are not captured. For example, we do not measure delay and opportunity costs nor are we able to include all explicit and implicit costs.”
Joshi scrutinizes that morning’s purchase of Easttech S.A. and comments: “We purchased a total of 20,000 shares of Easttech S.A. in three separate trades over a time interval of 10 minutes at Zl23.80, Zl23.95, and Zl24.35, with an average price of Zl24.175. The volume-weighted average price (VWAP) transaction cost estimate is greater than the effective spread cost estimate, but I think its use is problematic for evaluation because our trades include such a large percentage of all trades within the time interval being measured.”
All trades during the 10-minute interval are shown in Exhibit 1.题目图片
81.
Which of Soehnges’s three procedures for managing transaction costs is least likely referring to an explicit component of execution costs?
  • A.Practice I
  • B.Practice II
  • C.Practice III

参考答案C

解析C is correct. Explicit costs are the direct costs of trading, such as commission costs or fixed trading costs, including the cost to employ buy-side traders, and costs for which a trader could receive a receipt. Implicit costs, by contrast, are indirect costs associated with the market impact of trading. One measure of an implicit cost is the effective spread, which compares the difference between the trade price and the midpoint of the bid and the ask prices at the time the order is entered. Another is the VWAP benchmark, which compares the price obtained compared with other traders trading at the same time.
A is incorrect. These are explicit trading costs.
B is incorrect. These are explicit trading costs.
82.
Soehnges’s process for evaluating trade costs least likely addresses:
  • A.effective spreads.
  • B.implementation shortfall.
  • C.VWAP transactions costs

参考答案B

解析B is correct. The implementation shortfall method includes consideration of all explicit and implicit costs, as well as impact costs, delay costs, and opportunity costs.
A is incorrect. Effective spreads compare trade execution prices with the midquote price at the time the order is entered. Unlike the implementation shortfall method, effective spreads do not consider all explicit and implicit costs, such as impact costs, delay costs, and opportunity costs.
C is incorrect. VWAP transaction cost estimates compare trade prices to the prices obtained by other traders trading at the same time. Unlike the implementation shortfall method, the VWAP transaction cost estimate does not consider all explicit and implicit costs, such as impact costs, delay costs, and opportunity costs.
83.
According to the data in Exhibit 1, the effective spread per share of Maneck’s third purchase of Easttech S.A. shares at Zl24.35 is closest to which of the following?
  • A.0.25
  • B.0.30
  • C.0.50

参考答案C

解析C is correct. The effective spread is the spread traders would have observed if the quoted ask (for a purchase) were equal to the trade price. It can be calculated for buy orders as follows:题目图片

84.
Is Joshi most likely correct in his commentary regarding the VWAP transaction cost estimate and effective spread cost estimate?
  • A.Yes.
  • B.No, he is incorrect about VWAP being problematic for evaluating this purchase.
  • C.No, he is incorrect about VWAP being greater than the effective spread estimate.

参考答案C

解析C is correct. The VWAP is the sum of the total dollar value of trades concerned divided by the total quantity of the trades. The VWAP benchmark price is 24.175, which is the same as the average trade price, or trade VWAP, resulting in a VWAP transaction cost estimate of zero. The VWAP typically is computed using all trades that occurred from the start of the order until the order was completed and is also known as the interval VWAP. The VWAP transaction cost estimate for buy orders =Trade size ×(Trade VWAP?VWAP benchmark).
The total number of shares during the trade interval was 24,000 so the VWAP benchmark is calculated as follows:
((2000 ×23.80)+(2000 ×24.05)+(6000 ×23.95)+(2000×24.30)+(12000×24.35))/24000=24.175
and is the same as the trade VWAP. All of the individual trades within the purchase were executed at the ask price or higher, meaning the effective spread cost will always be greater than zero. Interpreting VWAP transaction cost estimate is problematic when the trades being evaluated are a substantial fraction of all trades in the VWAP benchmark. Maneck traded 20,000 of the 24,000 shares traded during the given interval.
A is incorrect. The VWAP transaction cost estimate is not higher than the effective spread cost estimate.
B is incorrect. The VWAP transaction cost estimate method is problematic when the trades being evaluated are a substantial fraction of all trades in the VWAP benchmark. A total of 24,000 shares are traded within the VWAP interval and the trade VWAP contains 20,000 shares.
Mona Simmons is an analyst at Bluestone Fixed-Income Advisors, a fixed-income investment management firm located in Chicago, IL. Bluestone manages a variety of fixed-income strategies, primarily for institutional clients. Simmons provides economic research to portfolio managers by analyzing economic data and advising how these data may influence various segments of the fixed-income markets.
Simmons is working on an assessment of the current economic conditions and the resulting impact on future real risk-free interest rates for a number of countries. She plans to present her findings at the upcoming investment committee meeting. As part of her research, she has collected the data provided in Exhibit 1 through the end of the second quarter.题目图片At the investment committee meeting, Simmons recommends purchasing United Kingdom inflation-linked government bonds. In her discussion, she makes the following statements about inflation-linked bonds:
Statement 1 “The break-even inflation rate incorporates the yield difference between longer dated and shorter dated inflation-linked bonds.”
Statement 2 “The difference between nominal and inflation-linked bond yields reflects the expectations of and uncertainty about the quantity of goods and services investors will be able to consume in the future.”
Statement 3 “Increases in uncertainty about future inflation are associated with lower break-even inflation rates.”
Lloyd Redfield, a portfolio manager on the foreign bond team, asks Simmons to review the current business cycle and yield curve in Australia. The Australian economy entered a recession approximately 6 months ago, and the Australian Central Bank has been reducing its policy rate. Simmons expects the Australian economy to gradually improve over the next 6–12 months and the government bond curve to change from its currently flat state to an upward sloping state. Simmons believes the future upward slope of the yield curve will be influenced by investor expectations for declining policy rates, increasing inflation premiums for longer dated bonds, and bond risk premiums that are negatively related to consumption hedging benefits.
Given the ongoing recession in Australia, Redfield is reviewing Australian corporate bonds with the same five-year maturity held in the foreign bond strategy. The three bonds being reviewed are listed in Exhibit 2. Redfield agrees with Simmons’ assessment of the Australian economy.题目图片Based on this information, Redfield makes the following comments to Simmons regarding the Australian bonds:
Comment 1 You can calculate the expected loss by multiplying the probability of default by the recovery rate.
Comment 2 Relative to bond B and bond C, bond A has likely experienced the worst price return over the last 9 months.
Comment 3 Based on your economic forecasts, in 6–12 months overall credit spreads should narrow and the rate of improvement will likely be greatest for bond C.
85.
Using only the data in Exhibit 1, which country will Simmons most likely expect to have the highest average real short-term risk-free interest rates over the forecasted horizon?
  • A.Germany
  • B.United States
  • C.United Kingdom

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Germany has the highest combination of expected GDP growth and expected GDP volatility of the countries presented in Exhibit 1. Thus, all else held constant, it would have the highest expected real short-term risk-free rates.
B is incorrect. The United States has both a relatively low rate of expected GDP growth and expected GDP volatility.
C is incorrect. While the United Kingdom has a relatively high expected GDP growth rate, it has the lowest expected volatility of GDP growth.
86.
Which of Simmons’ statements concerning inflation-linked bonds is most likely correct?
  • A.Statement 1
  • B.Statement 2
  • C.Statement 3

参考答案B

解析B is correct. Since Simmons makes her statements while looking at the yield difference between nominal and inflation-linked bonds, Statement 2 (“The difference in yields reflects the uncertainty about the quantity of goods and services investors will be able to consume in the future.”) is correct. The difference in yields incorporates uncertainty about future inflation and, therefore, the uncertainty about the quantity of goods and services investors will be able to consume in the future.
A is incorrect. Statement 1 (“The break-even inflation rate incorporates the yield difference between longer dated inflation-linked bonds and shorter dated inflation-linked bonds.”) is incorrect. The break-even inflation rate incorporates the yield difference between inflation-linked and non-inflation-linked government bonds of the same maturity, not the yield difference between longer dated inflation-linked bonds and shorter dated inflation-linked bonds.
C is incorrect. Statement 3 (“Increases in uncertainty about future inflation are associated with lower break-even inflation rates.”) is incorrect. Increases in uncertainty about future inflation would be associated with higher, not lower, break-even inflation rates.
87.
Which one of Simmons’ factors is most likely accurate with regard to investors influencing the future shape of the yield curve?
  • A.Inflation premiums
  • B.Bond risk premiums
  • C.Policy rate expectations

参考答案A

解析A is correct. Simmons’ forecast is supported by increasing inflation premiums for longer dated bonds. Many factors can influence an upward sloping yield curve, including higher risk premiums as maturities increase.
B is incorrect. An upward sloping curve would be associated with bond risk premiums that are positively, not negatively, related to the consumption hedging benefits of government bonds.
C is incorrect. Investor expectations for declining policy rates are more likely to result in an inverted yield curve, not an upward sloping curve.
88.
Which of Redfield’s comments regarding the Australian corporate bonds in Exhibit 2 is most likely correct?
  • A.Comment 1
  • B.Comment 2
  • C.Comment 3

参考答案C

解析C is correct. Comment 3 is correct. When credit spreads are generally narrowing, the rate of improvement will tend to be greater for those bonds issued by entities with a relatively weaker ability to pay. Bond C has the lowest credit rating, highest probability of default, and widest spread over government bonds and should experience the greatest rate of improvement as the Australian economy improves and spreads narrow.
A is incorrect. Comment 1 is incorrect. Expected loss = Probability of default x (1 – Recovery rate). For example, bond B has an expected loss of 2% x (1 – 35%) = 1.3%.
B is incorrect. Comment 2 is incorrect. The Australian economy entered recession approximately 6 months ago. As the business cycle turns down, those issuers with good credit ratings tend to outperform those with lower ratings as the spreads between low and higher quality issuers widen.